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Option adjusted spread

As per page 373 of the FIxed INcome volume, I understand that an option that is favorable to the issure such as a call option will have a larger yield spread. But I'm confused with the example given with Ginnie Mae because it shows that the option adjusted spread is lower than the yield spread. What can we infer from this example? (sorry for sounding like a textbook question there )

Your help is much appreciated!

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