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发表于 2011-7-11 17:39
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Happy Friday everyone....a little confused on the below....The question asks to calculate the WACC, however I dont understand how to differentiate between the details of the two questions.
The question says:
Before evaluating the projects, Conover must make some pro forma forecasts for 2005. According to Bailey’s 2005 pro forma income statement, Conover expects Bailey to earn a net profit of $7,000. He also expects the firm to maintain its current dividend payout ratio of 50%. The firm has a target capital structure of 70% equity and 30% debt. Conover estimates the applicable corporate tax rate to be 35%.
Conover’s next step is to evaluate capital market conditions. Because Bailey is in an economically sensitive industry, the firm has a greater than average level of systematic risk. Conover estimates that the beta applicable for a standard project for the firm is 1.5. Over the last three years, the U.S. economy has been in a sustained expansion, and Bailey has enjoyed strong profit growth. This strong growth has allowed Bailey to fund most of its capital budget internally. However, many economists believe that growth will slow in 2005 despite the government’s accommodative fiscal policy. As a result, Conover believes that management’s aggressive goals and objectives imply that Bailey will need to seek external capital.
Conover calls a meeting with Derek Munn, CFA, an investment banker with Lyndon Capital Corp. Using Conover’s forecasts, Munn believes that Bailey will be able to issue new debt at a cost of 9% and new equity at a cost of 18%. Munn also gives Conover a research report that says the 2005 expected return for the market is 11%, and three-month Treasury bills will yield 5%.
1) Conover starts his analysis by estimating the firm’s current weighted average cost of capital (WACC). What is the firm’s current WACC?
2)Conover calculates new WACC beyond the retained earnings break-even point as:
Answers:
1) 11.56%
2)14.36% |
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