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Cash flow and market value risk in swaptions

(Also related to Volume 1 Test 3 PM)

They say selling a payer swaption exposes to cash flow risk if exercised, but I could also see it that we are exposed to market value risk because our fixed payments' market value can vary. Can anyone provide a definitive way to determine respective MV and CF risks with swaptions? Have looked in CFAI/Schweser.

Example: If I'm long a payer swaption, and its exercised, I pay fixed and receive floating. Here, am I simply exposed to only cash flow risk? I don't really care about the MV of my fixed payments.

In buying a receiver swaption, am I only exposed to cash flow risk? What about the MV of fixed payments?

Any clarification would be much appreciated.

was discussed in another thread too...

payer swaption - would be used to convert your floating rate payments on your bond to fixed rate payments.

when you do that - you are only making a fixed payment every period. Floating payment received on swap goes to pay the floating payment on your bond.

with this - you have no cash flow risk. you know exactly the amount of cash flow you need to make.

But when interest rate increases - the value of your floating rate bond falls - so you have market value risk.

CP

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@ cpk123, value of floating rate bond does not fall when interest rate rises, it is the value of fixed rate bonds that fall. The reason will be clearer below.

I am a corporation that just issued a 10-year floating rate bond last year. My economists tell me that interest rate rates are going to rise in two years and will remain high for three years. I can decide to buy a payer swaption to convert my floating rate bond to fixed rate bond; the three year swaption will expire in two years.

If interest rates rise and my payer swaption is in the money, I will exercise it and pay fixed while receiving floating. The floating payment on the issued bond will be offset by the payment received from the swap I have entered.

Question is how does this contract affect cashflow (CF) and market value (MV) risk?

I have converted a floating rate bond to a fixed rate bond. I do not have CF risk because my payments are known for the next three years with certainty. But I am exposed to MV risk because the MV of my liabilities will fluctuate with interest rates. When rates rise, I am happy because I am locked into paying a lower coupon and MV of my liabilities will decline. This will lead to an increase in my shareholders' fund.

If the payer swaption expired out of the money, I will not exercise it. Since I am stuck with making floating payments, I cannot accurately predict what my next payment will be, hence I am now exposed to CF risk. Because the value of liabilities will adjust to par because of the fact that payments adjust to reflect current market rates, my liabilities will remain stable and I have little to zero MV risk.

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