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3#
发表于 2011-7-11 19:52
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Let's say you want to take advantage of Forward premium and would like to short the commodity (say gold).. by the way, you would do this only if the right side of your first inequality is less or equal to the Future's price..
your actions:
1.Sell the futures
2.Invest the proceeds to earn Rf
3.Since you don't have any gold, borrow it at a lease rate that will be to your benefit
4.When the future date comes, sell your gold at Futures price
If your Futures price> than what your proceeds are from investment (less leasing costs), then you earned a profit.. This means, you took advantage of the arbitrage!
Same goes with the second inequality.. if this is true, you can take the opposite side to take advantage of this arbitrage..
Therefore, Futures are priced in a way to eliminate any kind of arbitrage.. So you will rarely see that Futures price does not equal to the right side of the formula..
I hope this helps.. |
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