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Why No Call Spread? Reading 23 Problem 3

Reading 23, Problem 3, why does the CFA not add the 0.8 call risk spread to the 10 year MBS after stating that the MBS is callable?

I did this problem like 3 months ago. I think there was a footnote that said it was included in some other spread measure or something.

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0.95% is the prepayment risk (risk of MBS being called), which they have added. It’s different from 0.80%, the call spread for the 10-year callable bond.

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oh, they translated “prepayment” into “callable”. That’s tricky. Thanks

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may have been an issue in the errata for this one, if my memory serves me correctly. which it hasn’t lately.

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