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4#
发表于 2013-4-16 14:51
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Here’s a trick that sometimes helps when calculating FVs for “two part” problems:
The “FV of the PV of the cash flows” equals the “FV of the cash flows”. In other words, calculate the PV of the annuity. Then calculate the FV of the PV.
Here’s the application: The PV of the four payments, whether calculated in Begin mode straight away (i.e. as an annuity due) or in end mode (as an ordinary annuity) and then adjusted by (1+i) is $3,673.01
The FV of $3,673.01 for 6 years at 6% annual interest is $5,210.23
While this doesn’t save much time in this case, the “calculate PV and then calculate FV of PV” cam be useful if you have irregular cash flows the cash flow register of the BA2+ can be used in conjunction with the NPV function to get PVs of irregular cash flows easily. But it won’t (unless you have a newer model) calculate FV of irregular cash flows. |
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