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Portfolio Standard Deviation Question
Portfolio Standard Deviation Question:
On Page 178 of Secret Sauce it says that if the two assets in a two-asset portfolio are perfectly positively correlated (p = +1) then the standard deviation of the portfolio will just be the weighted standard deviations of each asset. Isn’t this wrong? My thinking is that if the correlation is ZERO then the portfolio would be the weighted average of the standard deviations, because a correlation of zero would elimanate the 3rd part of the portfolio standard deviation formula (it would make the 3rd part which is 2(w1)(w2)(SD1)(SD2)(P) equal to zero because P=0 and would leave behind the weighted SD)
Can somebody please explain this? or is this a type in the secret sauce? |
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