Which of the following is least likely to expose the lender in a repurchase agreement (repo) to credit risk related to the delivery of the collateral? A) | The borrower has their bank hold the collateral instead of the lender in the repo agreement. |
| B) | The borrower sells the collateral prior to delivery. |
| C) | The borrower has already used the asset as collateral for another loan that has not matured. |
| D) | The borrower files for bankruptcy before the collateral is delivered. |
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Answer and Explanation
While the lender would prefer to have possession of the collateral, having the borrowers bank hold the collateral is the least likely of the above to expose the lender to credit risk.
While the lender would prefer to have possession of the collateral, having the borrowers bank hold the collateral is the least likely of the above to expose the lender to credit risk. While the lender would prefer to have possession of the collateral, having the borrowers bank hold the collateral is the least likely of the above to expose the lender to credit risk.
[此贴子已经被作者于2008-9-18 17:40:52编辑过] |