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[CFA入门] [求助]请教1道Level 1的题

 An analyst has determined that the returns distribution of a risky asset,
conditional on the performance of the overall economy, is:
Return 5%,10%,14%"

Probability, 20%, 40%, 40%

The returns distribution of the overall market portfolio is:
Return 2%,10%, 15%
Probability,20%,40%, 40%


If the risk-free rate is 5% and the risky asset has a beta of 1.1, with respect to
the market portfolio, the analyst should:

A. buy the risky asset because its expected rerum is higher than the expected
rerum on the market.
B. sell (or sell short) the risky asset because its expected return is less than
equilibrium expected rerurn on the market portfolio.
C. buy the risky asset because the analyst expects the rerum on it to be higher
than its required return in equilibrium.
D. sell (or sell short) the risky asset because its expected return is less than
enough to compensate for its market risk.

正确答案是 D, 为什么不选B 呢?谢谢



嗯……我个人觉得吧(没有啥书上的依据),决策一个风险资产是否应该买还是卖,主要考虑其收益和风险。

B答案是说,卖掉,因为收益比市场投资组合收益低。为什么比投资组合收益低就要卖掉呢?直接组合,买入risk free的t-bill就行了嘛。

D答案是说,卖掉,因为收益不足以弥补市场风险。(这里我也不是特别明确市场风险可不可以认为是市场利率),如果可以,那就可以转换的去想,市场风险是cost of capital,风险资产收益是IRR,IRR小于cost of capital,所以不继续投资。

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