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Can you clear up the confusion I have bout this formula?

Two formulas for domestic return on a foreign portfolio:

1) Return=Capital Gain + Currency Appreciation + (Capital Gain)(Currency Appreciation)
2) Return=Capital Gain + Income Yield +Currency Effect,
where Currency Effect=e*(1+Capital Gain+Income Yield).

When do I use 1) or 2)?

Sorry I don't understand desperatestudent. What do you mean?

TOP

i thought they are both the same except 1 assumes no recurring income (i.e rental income) but only capital gain whereas 2 assumes there are income and capital appreciation. Note the currency effect affect income and capital gain components.

TOP

equation 1 = fully hedged...
equation 2 = only the principal is hedged

equation rarely happens unless they specifically tell you.

TOP

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