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in the case of an all equity company - D=0, E=1
so D/E = 0
So formula reduces to Re = R0
which is right.
If Schweser has the formula in that way, it is definitely incorrect.
R0 = D/D+E* Rd * (1-T) + E/D+E * Re
work back from there to arrive at Re formula
and you will get
Re = R0 + (Ro-Rd(1-T)) * D/E

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Suppose Re = 16%, Rd = 5%, Tax = 20% Debt to Asset ratio = 50%
WACC = 0.5 x 5(1-20%) + 0.5 x 16
WACC = 0.5 x 4 + 0.5 x 16
WACC = 2+8
WACC = 10%
Using the formula (incorrect)
Re = Ro + (Ro - Rd)(1-t) D/E
Re = 10 + (10 - 5)(1-20%) x 0.5/0.5
Re = 10 + 5(1-20%) x 1
Re = 10 + 4
Re = 14% (Which is wrong)
Using the correct formula as CPK mentioned
Re = Ro + (Ro - Rd(1-t)) x D/E
Re = 10 + (10 - 5(1-20%))x 0.5/0.5
Re = 10 + (10 - 4) x 1
Re = 10 + (6)
Re = 16% (Which is correct)

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be careful may friends,2 EOC Q are based on this wrong formula

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Please! I remind that: CFA text book is no wrong!
You should read this link for more detail.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modigliani%E2%80%93Miller_theorem

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bump

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Why’re you bumping this? It is just going to create more confusion for everyone.

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for all-equity : wacc=re=r0, Vu=[EBIT(1-t)]/r0
if finance with leverage,  Vl=Vu+tD=D+E=[EBIT(1-t)]/rwacc,  and  rwacc=(D/Vl)rd(1-t)+(E/Vl)re
== Vl*rwacc=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== EBIT(1-t)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== Vu*r0=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== r0*(Vl-t*D)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== r0*(D+E-t*D)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== ro*(1-t)*D+r0*E=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== re=r0+(r0-rd)*(1-t)*(D/E)

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Oh no not again. Aether, are we going to bother?

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BrightStar wrote:
Oh no not again. Aether, are we going to bother?
LOL, exactly my thoughts.
Guys, quit bumping this thread… the formula given in the CFAI text is correct as given. No need for proofs or second-guessing the core material.

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