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A U.S. bank enters into a plain vanilla currency swap with a German bank. The swap has a notional principal of US$15m (Euro 15.170m). At each settlement date, the U.S. bank pays a fixed rate of 6.5 percent on the Euros received, and a German bank pays a variable rate equal to LIBOR+2 percent on the U.S. dollars received. Given the following information, what payment is made to whom at the end of year 2?

U.S. bank pays German bank pays

A)
Euro 986,050 US$975,000
B)
US$975,000 Euro 986,050
C)
Euro 986,050 US$1,275,000


The U.S. bank pays 6.5% fixed on Euro 15,170,000, which makes for an annual payment of Euro 986,050. The variable rate to be used at time period 2 is set at time period 1 (the arrears method). Therefore, the German bank pays 6.5% + 2% = 8.5% times US$15,000,000 for a payment of US$1,275,000.

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XYZ company has entered into a "plain-vanilla" interest rate swap on $1,000,000 notional principal. XYZ company pays a fixed rate of 8% on payments that occur at 90-day intervals. Six payments remain with the next one due in exactly 90 days. On the other side of the swap, XYZ company receives payments based on the LIBOR rate. Describe the transaction that occurs between XYZ company and the dealer at the end of the first period if the appropriate LIBOR rate is 8.8%.

A)
Dealer receives $2,000.
B)
Dealer pays XYZ company $20,000.
C)
XYZ company receives $2,000.


XYZ company owes the dealer ($1,000,000)(0.08)(90/360) = $20,000. The dealer owes XYZ company ($1,000,000)(0.088)(90/360) = $22,000. Net: The dealer pays XYZ company $22,000 - $20,000 = $2,000

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Consider a swap with a notional principal of $100 million.

Given the above diagrams, which of the following statements is CORRECT? At time period 2:

A)
A pays B $2 million.
B)
B pays A $1 million.
C)
A pays B $7 million and B pays A $8 million.


The variable rate to be used at time period 2 is set at time period 1 (the arrears method). Therefore, the appropriate variable rate is 7%, the fixed rate is 8%, and the interest payments are netted. The fixed-rate payer, counterparty B, pays according to:

(Swap Fixed Rate – LIBORt-1)(# of days/360)(Notional Principal).

In this case, we have (0.08 - 0.07)(360/360)($100 million) = $1 million

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Consider a $10,000,000 1-year quarterly-pay swap with a fixed rate of 4.5% and a floating rate of 90-day London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) plus 150 basis points. 90-day LIBOR is currently 3% and the current forward rates for the next four quarters are 3.2%, 3.6%, 3.8%, and 4%. If these rates are actually realized, at the termination of the swap the floating-rate payer will:

A)
pay $20,000.
B)
pay $25,000.
C)
pay $10,020,000.


The payment at the fourth (final) settlement date will be based on the realized LIBOR at the third quarter, 3.8%. The net payment by the floating rate payer will be:

(0.038 + 0.015 ? 0.045) × 90/360 × 10,000,000 = $20,000

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Consider a swap with a notional principal of $120 million.

Given the above diagrams, which of the following statements is CORRECT? At the end of 360 days:

A)
A pays B $13.2 million and B pays A $12 million.
B)
A pays B $1.2 million.
C)
A pays B $0.6 million.


The variable rate to be used at the end of 360 days is set at the 180-day period (the arrears method). Therefore, the appropriate variable rate is 10%, the fixed rate is 11%, the time period is 180 days, and the interest payments are netted. The fixed-rate payer, counterparty A, pays according to:

(Swap Fixed Rate – LIBORt-1)(# of days/360)(Notional Principal).

In this case, we have (0.11 - 0.10)(180/360)($120 million) = $0.6 million

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Currency swap markets consist of transactions in:

A)
both spot and forward contracts.
B)
the forward market only.
C)
spot markets only.


In this explanation, Euro is used to represent foreign currency. In a currency swap, one counterparty (D) holds dollars and wants Euros. The other counterparty (E) holds Euros and wants dollars. They decide to swap their currency positions at the current spot exchange rate.  The counterparties exchange the full notional principal at the onset of the swap.  Then, on each settlement date, one party pays a fixed rate of interest on the foreign currency received, and the other party pays a floating rate on the dollars received.  Interest payments are not netted. Generally, the variable interest rate on the dollar borrowings is determined at the beginning of the settlement period and paid at the end of the settlement period.  At the conclusion of the swap, the notional currencies are again exchanged. Thus, currency swaps involved transactions in both the spot and forward (future) markets. A fixed-for-fixed currency swap is equivalent to a portfolio of foreign exchange forward contracts (both parties need to deliver currency in the future).

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Consider a swap with a notional principal of $300 million, annual payments, and a 30E/360 daycount convention (every month has 30 days, a year has 360 days).

 > >

LIBOR

 > >

Counterparty

???????????

Counterparty

A

???????????

B

 > >

7% Fixed

 > >

 > >

0

1

2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

LIBOR = 5.5%

LIBOR = 6.5%

LIBOR = 7%

Given the above diagram, which of the following statements is most accurate? At time period 2:

A)
A pays B $1.5 million.
B)
B pays A $1.5 million.
C)
B pays A $21.0 million.


The variable rate to be used at time period 2 is set at time period 1 (the arrears method). Therefore, the appropriate variable rate is 6.5%, the fixed rate is 7%, and the interest payments are netted. The fixed-rate payer, counterparty B, pays according to:

[Swap Fixed Rate – LIBORt-1][(# of days)/(360)][Notional Principal].

In this case, we have [0.07 – 0.065][360/360][$300 million] = 1.5 million.

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Consider a swap with a notional principal of $100 million.

Given the above diagrams, which of the following statements is CORRECT? At the end of year 3:

A)
A pays B $1 million.
B)
A pays B $1.25 million.
C)
A pays B $2.5 million.


The variable rate to be used at the end of year 3 is set at the end of 2? years (the arrears method). Therefore, the appropriate variable rate is 9%, the fixed rate is 6.5%, and the interest payments are netted. The fixed-rate payer, counterparty B, pays according to:

(Swap Fixed Rate – LIBORt-1)(# of days/360)(Notional Principal).

In this case, we have (0.065 - 0.09)(180/360)($100 million) = $-1.25 million.


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Consider a $10,000,000 1-year quarterly-pay swap with a fixed rate of 4.5 percent and a floating rate of 90-day London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) plus 150 basis points. 90-day LIBOR is currently 3 percent and the current forward rates for the next four quarters are 3.2 percent, 3.6 percent, 3.8 percent, and 4 percent. If these rates are actually realized, at the first quarterly settlement date:

A)
the fixed-rate payer will be required to make a payment of $7,500.
B)
no payments will be made.
C)
the floating rate payer will be required to make a payment of $92,500.


The first floating rate payment is based on current LIBOR + 1.5% = 4.5%. This is equal to the fixed rate so no (net) payment will be made on the first settlement date.

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No Errors Printing has entered into a "plain-vanilla" interest rate swap on $1,000,000 notional principal. No Errors receives a fixed rate of 5.5% on payments that occur at quarterly intervals. Platteville Investments, a swap broker, negotiates with another firm, Perfect Bid, to take the pay-fixed side of the swap. The floating rate payment is based on LIBOR (currently at 6.0%). Because of the current interest rate environment, No Errors expects to pay a net amount at the next settlement date and has created a reserve to cover the cash outlay. At the time of the next payment (due in exactly one quarter), the reserve balance is $1,000. To fulfill its obligations under the swap, No Errors will need approximately how much additional cash?

A)
No Errors will receive $250.
B)
$0.
C)
$250.


The net payment formula for the floating rate payer is:

Floating Rate Paymentt = (LIBORt-1 ? Swap Fixed Rate) × (# days in term / 360) × Notional Principal

If the result is positive, the floating-rate payer owes a net payment and if the result is negative, then the floating-rate payer receives a net inflow. Note: We are assuming a 360 day year.

Here, Floating Rate Payment = (0.06 ? 0.055) × (90 / 360) × 1,000,000 = $1,250. Since the result is positive, No Errors will pay this amount. Since the reserve balance is $1,000, No Errors needs an additional $250.

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