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why is wacc less sensitive to leverage changes?
hi everyone,
i am confused about a particular paragraph from the kaplan schweser books. pleasehelp to understand the reasoning in the below par. of why wacc is less sensitive to leverage changes? this seems odd since cost of debt is included in wacc but excluded from cost of eqiuty. thanks!
"Free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) can be used to value the firm as a whole and free cash flow to equity (FCFE) can be used for equity. FCFF is usually favored if the firm is going to significantly change its capital structure. The reason is that the discount rate used for FCFF valuation, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), is less sensitive to leverage changes than the discount rate used for FCFE valuation, the cost of equity." |
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