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The asset beta of a firm equals its equity beta if:
a. the company has no debt
b. the company has no equity
c. the company's debt equals its equity

The correct answer was A).
The formula for the asset beta is:

Asset Beta = Equity Beta (1/(1+((D/E)(1-t)))
Therefore, the two betas are identical only if the company has no debt in its capital structure (D = 0). If the company has no debt, then the asset beta must equal the equity beta.

I don't understand why the answer cannot also be B (E=0)?

Thanks!

Logically, If the firm has no equity, what is equity beta?

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Well - to think about it, that would still make asset beta equal to equity beta didn't think about it but got the answer correct

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Any other thoughts? I'm still confused.

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the assumption is that the denominator (E) cannot be zero

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If you try lim(E->0), B(asset)->0.

Similarly, as you said, B(eqty x)=cov(x,m)/(sigma(m)^2)->0 as E->0.

Thus, it looks to me that (b) should be accepted, too.

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Uh, debt magnifies (levers) equity beta as a multiple of asset beta, so lim(E->0) EquityBeta -> infinity.

So b doesn't work.



Edited 2 time(s). Last edit at Wednesday, November 24, 2010 at 12:21AM by bchadwick.

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