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1.3-.5 = .8

1.5-1.1 = .4

More money can be made in FC1 based on the manager's expectations.

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Actively hedge Currency Risk?

Domestic Currency (DC), Foreign Currency 1 (FC1), and Foreign Currency 2 (FC2)

The forward rates are in agreement with the interest rate differentials and indicate: FC1 will depreciate 1.3% and FC2 will depreciate 1.5%.

Lets say we expect FC1 to depreciate only 0.5% and FC2 to depreciate only 1.1%. Why should we hedge FC2 into FC1?

So bpdulog, trying to decipher what you said:

Since the differential between Forward Rate and Expectation is 80 bps in FC1 vs only 40 bps in FC2, the aim here is to do a Cross Hedge by taking an active position on a Forward between FC1 and FC2. This strategy will make money to partially offset the currency loss on the original investment in FC2.

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If you look at it from any angle, FC1 will depreciate less than FC2 which is good.

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