the IPS stated if they retire at 60, then the kid's education was paid for somehow (look at the text, it's in there), but it says if they hold out, they'll have to pay for it. it's in the body of the text somewhere.
On the 2009 AM exam, Question 1 asks to explain the couple's time horizon if they retire at i) 60 or ii) 65. For the age 60 retirement assumption, it doesn't mention their kids going to university a year later (just says 1 stage time horizon), but it does include the time that the kids are in school a seperate time period in the age 65 retirement scenario. Does anyone have an idea why?