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It has no effect.

Just do a simple scenario analysis (simplified to ignore WCInv, FCInv and NCC since they aren't relevant --- and we all know dividends dont impact FCFF or FCFE):

Before issuing debt to pay dividends:

EBIT = 50
Int = 10
EBT = 40
Tax (@20%) = 8
Net Income = $32

FCFF = Net Income + Int (1 - tc) + NWInv + FCInv + NCC
FCFF = 32 + (0.8)*(10) + 0 + 0 + 0
FCFF = $40

Now I issue $100 in debt @ 10% to pay dividends:

EBIT = 50
Int = 20 [10 + (0.1 * 100) = 20]
EBT = 30
Tax (@20%) = 6
Net Income = $24

FCFF = Net Income + Int (1 - tc) + NWInv + FCInv + NCC
FCFF = 24 + (0.8)*(20) + 0 + 0 + 0
FCFF = 24 + 16
FCFF = $40

Voila.

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I don't really understand the need for so much of discussion here and the calculations as well. It's obvious that dividends or debt payments/issuances won't affect FCFF since it's a pre-levered cash flow measure. There's no need to check if it through the formula by adding int(1-t) to the net income. It's simply the fact that FCFF does not account for interest or dividends.


Whereas FCFE, is a post-levered measure and hence accounts for interest and net borrowings(debt payments or issuances). Dividend however, is a payment that can be made from FCFE, so it does not affect FCFE. Only leverage would affect FCFE and the effects would be opposite in the year of issuance and subsequent years. If you issue debt today, FCFE increases because net borrowings increase. Future FCFE decreases because interest payments increase. It would be the other way for debt repayment.

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Anything that is a use (or in other words NOT A SOURCE) of FCFF/FCFE will not affect the FCFF/FCFE.



1) Increase common stock dividends <- use of FCFF / FCFE

2) Repurchasing common shares <- use of FCFF / FCFE

3) Reducing outstanding Long term debt. <- use of FCFF only, NOT FCFE.

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