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NOTE THIS QUESTION IS TAKEN FROM QBANK WITH MODIFICATIONS. I INCLUDED WHAT I THOUGHT WERE THE RELEVANT KEY POINTS:
Maggie McCarthy is an individual investment advisor who uses mutual funds for her clients. She typically chooses from a list of 40 funds that she has thoroughly researched, and 1 fund really stands out. She puts the fund in a married couple's portfolio, and in all new clients portfolios, but not in any of her other clients' portfolios. Her reasoning is that her existing clients were comfortable with their current holdings, and she did not want to risk disturbing their comfort. Has McCarthy violated any Standards? McCarthy has:
A) violated the Standards by not dealing fairly with clients.
B) violated the Standards by not having a reasonable and adequate basis for making the recommendation.
C) not violated the Standards.
The answer is A and I understand that. But it could it also be letter B as well? She had no significant basis for choosing the fund except for the fact that it was the best performing fund in the portfolio. Shouldn't she have investigated the risk profile and return requirements of every portfolio first before putting it in every portfolio? |
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