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Yardeni.

If we divide 1/Yardeni model, that should be the intrinsic P/E of the market.

Correct?

Yep. I also think you may need to discount the Current PE by 1+ LTEG to adequately compare them

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yeah I think so too, with all those models around this one

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1/Yardeni = FORWARD P/E... right? So if you were trying to value the market TODAY t=0 using this metric you would need to discount by 1+LTEG as CFABlackBelt said... right?

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Why are you discounting current P/E? And by current, you mean current Forward, correct?

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jdane416 Wrote:
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> Why are you discounting current P/E? And by
> current, you mean current Forward, correct?

Ya. I don't have my notes in front of me. But I remember seeing a problem where you had to discount the forward to compare to the intrinsic.

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Yardeni is beyond worthless.

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So if we had the Forward P/E, Yardeni would be intrinsic Forward P/E or intrinsic P/E?

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Yardeni is forward

should be comped to fwd marker P/E so if they give you historical or current market P/E, adjust it to a forward P/E so you are comping apples to apples.

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I'm trying to think it through. Yardeni uses a forward expectations- But I can't imagine we'd have to discount it back to get intrinsic, I just can't recall ever seeing this anywhere.

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