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Enamel Manufacturing (EM) is considering investing in a new vehicle. EM finances new projects using retained earnings and bank loans. This new vehicle is expected to have the same level of risk as the typical investment made by EM. Which one of the following should the firm use in making its decision?
A)
Marginal cost of capital.
B)
Cost of retained earnings.
C)
After-tax cost of debt.



The marginal cost of capital represents the cost of raising an additional dollar of capital. The cost of retained earnings would only be appropriate if the company avoided creditor-supplied financing or the issuance of new common or preferred stock (and preferred stock financing). The after-tax cost of debt is never sufficient, because a business, regardless of their size, always has a residual owner, and hence a cost of equity.

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Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the marginal cost of capital’s role in determining the net present value (NPV) of a project?
A)
Projects for which the present value of the after-tax cash inflows is greater than the present value of the after-tax cash outflows should be undertaken by the firm.
B)
The NPVs of potential projects of above-average risk should be calculated using the marginal cost of capital for the firm.
C)
When using a firm’s marginal cost of capital to evaluate a specific project, there is an implicit assumption that the capital structure of the firm will remain at the target capital structure over the life of the project.



The WACC is the appropriate discount rate for projects that have approximately the same level of risk as the firm’s existing projects. This is because the component costs of capital used to calculate the firm’s WACC are based on the existing level of firm risk. To evaluate a project with above (the firm’s) average risk, a discount rate greater than the firm’s existing WACC should be used. Projects with below-average risk should be evaluated using a discount rate less than the firm’s WACC. An additional issue to consider when using a firm’s WACC (marginal cost of capital) to evaluate a specific project is that there is an implicit assumption that the capital structure of the firm will remain at the target capital structure over the life of the project. These complexities aside, we can still conclude that the NPVs of potential projects of firm-average risk should be calculated using the marginal cost of capital for the firm. Projects for which the present value of the after-tax cash inflows is greater than the present value of the after-tax cash outflows should be undertaken by the firm.

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Which of the following statements about the role of the marginal cost of capital in determining the net present value of a project is most accurate? The marginal cost of capital should be used to discount the cash flows:
A)
of all projects the firm is considering.
B)
if the firm’s capital structure is expected to change during the project’s life.
C)
for potential projects that have a level of risk near that of the firm’s average project.



Net present values of projects with the average risk for the firm should be determined using the firm’s marginal cost of capital. The discount rate should be adjusted for projects with above-average or below-average risk. Using the marginal cost of capital assumes the firm’s capital structure does not change over the life of the project.

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Which of the following is most accurate regarding the component costs and component weights in a firm’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
A)
The appropriate pre-tax cost of a firm’s new debt is the average coupon rate on the firm’s existing debt.
B)
The weights in the WACC should be based on the book values of the individual capital components.
C)
Taxes reduce the cost of debt for firms in countries in which interest payments are tax deductible.



The after-tax cost of debt = kd(1 – t) = kd – kd(t), where kd is the pretax cost of debt and t is the effective corporate tax rate. So the tax savings from the tax treatment of debt is kd(t). Capital component weights should be based on market weights, not book values. And, the appropriate pre-tax cost of debt is the yield to maturity on the firm’s existing debt.

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Ferryville Radar Technologies has five-year, 7.5% notes outstanding that trade at a yield to maturity of 6.8%. The company’s marginal tax rate is 35%. Ferryville plans to issue new five-year notes to finance an expansion. Ferryville’s cost of debt capital is closest to:
A)
4.4%.
B)
4.9%.
C)
2.4%.



Ferryville’s cost of debt capital is kd(1 - t) = 6.8% × (1 - 0.35) = 4.42%. Note that the before-tax cost of debt is the yield to maturity on the company’s outstanding notes, not their coupon rate. If the expected yield on new par debt were known, we would use that. Since it is not, the yield to maturity on existing debt is the best approximation.

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The 6% semiannual coupon, 7-year notes of Woodbine Transportation, Inc. trade for a price of $94.54. What is the company’s after-tax cost of debt capital if its marginal tax rate is 30%?
A)
2.1%.
B)
4.2%.
C)
4.9%.



To determine Woodbine’s before-tax cost of debt, find the yield to maturity on its outstanding notes:
PV = -94.54; FV = 100; PMT = 6 / 2 = 3; N = 14; CPT → I/Y = 3.50 × 2 = 7%

Woodbine’s after-tax cost of debt is kd(1 - t) = 7%(1 - 0.3) = 4.9%

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The debt of Savanna Equipment, Inc. has an average maturity of ten years and a BBB rating. A market yield to maturity is not available because the debt is not publicly traded, but the market yield on debt with similar characteristics is 8.33%. Savanna is planning to issue new ten-year notes that would be subordinate to the firm’s existing debt. The company’s marginal tax rate is 40%. The most appropriate estimate of the after-tax cost of this new debt is:
A)
5.0%.
B)
Between 3.3% and 5.0%.
C)
More than 5.0%.



The after-tax cost of debt similar to Savanna’s existing debt is kd(1 - t) = 8.33%(1 - 0.4) = 5.0%. Because the anticipated new debt will be subordinated in the company’s debt structure, investors will demand a higher yield than the existing debt carries. Therefore, the appropriate after-tax cost of the new debt is more than 5.0%.

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Which of the following is least likely to be useful to an analyst who is estimating the pretax cost of a firm’s fixed-rate debt?
A)
The yield to maturity of the firm’s existing debt.
B)
The coupon rate on the firm’s existing debt.
C)
Seniority and any special covenants of the firm’s anticipated debt.



Ideally, an analyst would use the YTM of a firm’s existing debt as the pretax cost of new debt. When a firm’s debt is not publicly traded, however, a market YTM may not be available. In this case, an analyst may use the yield curve for debt with the same rating and maturity to estimate the market YTM. If the anticipated debt has unique characteristics that affect YTM, these characteristics should be accounted for when estimating the pretax cost of debt. The cost of debt is the market interest rate (YTM) on new (marginal) debt, not the coupon rate on the firm’s existing debt. If you are provided with both coupon and YTM on the exam, you should use the YTM.

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Which of the following is least likely to be useful to an analyst when estimating the cost of raising capital through the issuance of non-callable, nonconvertible preferred stock?
A)
The stated par value of the preferred issue.
B)
The firm’s corporate tax rate.
C)
The preferred stock’s dividend rate.



The corporate tax rate is not a relevant factor when calculating the cost of preferred stock.
The cost of preferred stock, kps is expressed as:
kps = Dps / P
where:
Dps = divided per share = dividend rate × stated par value
P = market price

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The after-tax cost of preferred stock is always:
A)
equal to the before-tax cost of preferred stock.
B)
less than the before-tax cost of preferred stock.
C)
higher than the cost of common shares.



The after-tax cost of preferred stock is equal to the before-tax cost of preferred stock, because preferred stock dividends are not tax deductible. The cost of preferred shares is usually higher than the cost of debt, but less than the cost of common shares.

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