返回列表 发帖
In using FCFE models, the assumption of growth should be:
A)
independent from the assumptions of other variables.
B)
consistent with assumptions of other variables.
C)
only consistent with the assumptions of capital spending and depreciation.



The assumption of growth should be consistent with assumptions about other variables. Net capital expenditures (capital expenditures minus depreciation) and beta (risk) used to calculate required rate of return should be consistent with assumed growth rate.

TOP

The following information was collected from the financial statements of Bankers Industrial Corp. for the year ended December 31, 2000.

  • Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $6 million.

  • Capital expenditures = $1.25 million.

  • Depreciation expense = $0.63 million.

  • Working capital additions = $0.59 million.

  • Cost of debt = 10.5%.

  • Cost of equity = 16%.

  • Growth rate = 7%.

Bankers is currently operating at their target debt ratio of 40%. The firm’s tax rate is 40%.


The free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) for the current year is:
A)
$2.39 million.
B)
$3.57 million.
C)
$2.31 million.



The FCFF for the current year is $2.39m = [$6.0m(1 − 0.40)] + $0.63m − $1.25m − $0.59m.

The appropriate discount rate used in valuing Bankers using FCFF will be:
A)
12.12%.
B)
16.00%.
C)
6.30%.



The appropriate discount rate to be used is the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), and this is 12.12% = (0.60 × 0.16) + [0.40 × 0.105 × (1 − 0.40)].

The estimated value of the firm is:
A)
$37.61 million.
B)
$49.95 million.
C)
$46.68 million.



The value of Bankers using stable-growth FCFF model is $49.95 million, calculated as:
FCFF = $2.39m = [$6.0m(1 − 0.40)] + $0.63m − $1.25m − $0.59m.
WACC = 12.12% = (0.60 × 0.16) + [0.40 × 0.105 × (1 × 0.40)].
Estimated value = $49.95 million = ($2.39m × 1.07) / (0.1212 − 0.07)

TOP

The value of stock under the two-stage FCFE model will be equal to:
A)
present value (PV) of FCFE during the extraordinary growth period plus the terminal value.
B)
present value (PV) of FCFE during the extraordinary growth and transitional periods plus the PV of terminal value.
C)
present value (PV) of FCFE during the extraordinary growth period plus the PV of terminal value.



The value of stock under the two-stage FCFE model will be equal to the present value of FCFE during the extraordinary growth period plus the present value of the terminal value at the end of this period.

TOP

SOX, Inc., expects high growth in the next 4 years before slowing to a stable future growth of 3%. The firm is assumed to pay no dividends in the near future and has the following forecasted free cash flow to equity (FCFE) information on a per share basis in the high-growth period:

Year 1Year 2Year 3Year 4
FCFE$3.05$4.10$5.24$6.71


High-growth period assumptions:

  • SOX, Inc.'s, target debt ratio is 40% and a beta of 1.3.

  • The long-term Treasury Bond Rate is 4.0%, and the expected equity risk premium is 6%.

Stable-growth period assumptions:

  • SOX, Inc.'s, target debt ratio is 40% and a beta of 1.0.

  • The long-term Treasury Bond Rate is 4.0% and the expected equity risk premium is 6%.

  • Capital expenditures are assumed to equal depreciation.

  • In year 5, earnings are $8.10 per share while the change in working capital is $2.00 per share.

  • Earnings and working capital are expected to grow by 3% a year in the future.

What is the present value on a per share basis for SOX, Inc.?
A)
$64.24.
B)
$77.15.
C)
$70.49.



The required rate of return in the high-growth period is (r) = 0.04 + 1.3(0.06) = 0.118.
The required rate of return in the stable-growth period is (r) = 0.04 + 1.0(0.06) = 0.10.
The Present Value (PV) of the FCFE in the high-growth period is (3.05 / 1.118) + (4.10 / 1.1182) + (5.24 / 1.1183) + (6.71 / 1.1184) = 14.06.
The Terminal Price = Expected FCFEn + 1 / (r − gn) with FCFEn + 1 = FCFE in year 5 = Earnings per share − (Capital Expenditures − Depreciation)(1 − Debt Ratio) − (Change in working capital)(1 − Debt Ratio) = 8.10 − 0(1 − 0.4) − 2.00(1 − 0.4) = 6.90.
The Terminal Price = 6.90 / (0.10 − 0.03) = 98.57.
The PV of the Terminal Price = (98.57 / 1.1184) = 63.09.
The value of a share today is the PV of the FCFE in the high-growth period plus the PV of the Terminal Price = 14.06 + 63.09 = 77.15.

TOP

Using the stable growth free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) model, what is the value of Quality Builders under the assumptions contained in the table below?

Quality Builders

Free Cash Flow to the Firm

Year 0

EBIT$500   
Depreciation$200   
Capital Spending$300   
Working Capital Additions$30   
Tax Rate40%   
Assumed Constant Growth Rate in Free Cash Flow5%   
Weighted-average Cost of Capital11%   

A)
$6,475.00.
B)
$2,975.00.
C)
$2,833.33.



The stable growth FCFF model assumes that FCFF grows at a constant rate forever. FCFF in Year 0 is equal to EBIT(1 − tax rate) + Depreciation − Capital Spending − Working Capital Additions = 500(1 − 0.4) + 200 − 300 − 30 = 170. The Firm Value = FCFF1 / (r − gn) = 170(1.05) / (0.11 − 0.05) = $2,975.

TOP

Beachwood Builders merged with Country Point Homes in December 31, 1992. Both companies were builders of mid-scale and luxury homes in their respective markets. In 2004, because of tax considerations and the need to segment the businesses between mid-scale and luxury homes, Beachwood decided to spin-off Country Point, its luxury home subsidiary, to its common shareholders. Beachwood retained Bernheim Securities to value the spin-off of Country Point as of December 31, 2004.
When the books closed on 2004, Beachwood had $140 million in debt outstanding due in 2012 at a coupon rate of 8%, a spread of 2% above the current risk free rate. Beachwood also had 5 million common shares outstanding. It pays no dividends, has no preferred shareholders, and faces a tax rate of 30%. When valuing common stock, Bernhiem’s valuation models utilize a market risk premium of 11%.
The common equity allocated to Country Point for the spin-off was $55.6 million as of December 31, 2004. There was no long-term debt allocated from Beachwood.
The Managing Director in charge of Bernheim’s construction group, Denzel Johnson, is prepping for the valuation presentation for Beachwood’s board with Cara Nguyen, one of the firm’s associates. Nguyen tells Johnson that Bernheim estimated Country Point’s net income at $10 million in 2004, growing $5 million per year through 2008. Based on Nguyen’s calculations, Country Point will be worth $223.7 million in 2008. Nguyen decided to use a cost of equity for Country Point in the valuation equal to its return on equity at the end of 2004 (rounded to the nearest percentage point).
Nguyen also gives Johnson the table she obtained from Beachwood projecting depreciation (the only non-cash charge) and capital expenditures:

$(in millions)

2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
Depreciation56565
Capital Expenditures7891012

Looking at the numbers, Johnson tells Nguyen, “Country Point’s free cash flow (FCF) will be $25 million in 2006.” Nguyen adds, “That’s FCF to the Firm (FCFF). FCF to Equity (FCFE) will be lower.”
Regarding the statements by Johnson and Nguyen about FCF in 2006:
A)
only Johnson is incorrect.
B)
both are incorrect.
C)
only Nguyen is incorrect.



To estimate FCF, we can construct the following table using the table given and the information about growth in net income:

$(in millions)


2004

2005

2006

2007

2008

Net Income

10

15

20

25

30

Plus: Depreciation

5

6

5

6

5

Less: Capital Expenditures

7

8

9

10

12

Free Cash Flow

8

13

16

21

23

The estimated free cash flow for 2006 is $16 million. Johnson's statement is incorrect. Since none of Beachwood's debt is allocated to Country Point, all the financing is in the form of equity, so FCFF and FCFE are equal. Nguyen's statement is also incorrect. (Study Session 12, LOS 40.j)


If FCInv equals Fixed Capital Investment and WCInv equals Working Capital Investment, which statement about FCF and its components is least accurate?
A)
FCFE = (EBIT × (1 − tax rate)) + Depreciation − FCInv − WCInv.
B)
FCFF = (EBITDA × (1 − tax rate)) + (Depreciation × tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv.
C)
WCInv is the change in the working capital accounts, excluding cash and short-term borrowings.



The correct version of this equation is:
FCFF = (EBIT × (1 − tax rate)) + Depreciation − FCInv − WCInv (Study Session 12, LOS 40.j)


What is the cost of capital that Nguyen used for her valuation of Country Point?
A)
17%.
B)
18%.
C)
15%.



Since there is no debt allocated to Country Point, the cost of capital will equal the cost of equity. Nguyen said that she used a cost of equity equal to Country Point’s Return on Equity (ROE) at year-end, rounded to the nearest percentage point. Since the net income at the end of 2004 was $10 million and the allocated common equity was $55.6 million, the return of equity is (10 million / 55.6 million) = 18%. (Study Session 18, LOS 62.c)

Given Nguyen’s estimate of Country Point’s terminal value in 2008, what is the growth assumption she must have used for free cash flow after 2008?
A)
7%.
B)
9%.
C)
3%.



We know the terminal value in 2008 is $223.7 million. We can calculate the free cash flow in 2008 to be $23 million (= $30 million net income + $5 million depreciation − $12 million capital expenditures). (See the table in question 1). Thus, we can solve for the estimated growth rate:

Terminal value = [CF@2008 × (growth rate + 1)] / (discount rate − growth rate)
223.7 million = ($23 million × (growth rate + 1)) / (0.18 − growth rate)
223.7 million × (0.18 − growth rate) = 23 million × (growth rate + 1)
40.266 − (223.7 × growth rate) = 23 million + (23 × growth rate)
17.266 = 246.7 × (growth rate)
growth rate = 0.07

Nguyen’s growth rate assumption is 7% per year. (Study Session 12, LOS 40.c)


The value of beta for Country Point is:
A)
1.09.
B)
1.27.
C)
1.00.



The risk free rate is (8% − 2%) = 6%. We are told that the market risk premium is 11%, and we calculated the cost of equity (required return) to be (10 million / 55.6 million =) 18%. Since we know the risk-free rate, the market risk premium, and the discount rate, we can use the capital asset pricing model to solve for beta:

Required rate of return = 0.18 = 0.06 + (b × 0.11)
0.18 – 0.06 = b × 0.11
0.12 = b × 0.11
b = 1.09

(Study Session 12, LOS 40.c)


What is the estimated value of Country Point in a proposed spin-off?
A)
$162.6 million.
B)
$144.5 million.
C)
$178.3 million.



Using the discounted cash flow approach on the levels of cash flow we calculated (see the table in question 1):

Firm value = ($13 / 1.181) + ($16 / 1.182) + ($21 / 1.183) + ($23 / 1.184) + ($223.7 / 1.184)
=$11.0 + $11.5 + $12.8 + $11.9 + $115.4
= $162.6 million

(Study Session 12, LOS 40.c)

TOP

A firm's free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) in the most recent year is $80M and is expected to grow at 3% per year forever. If the firm has $100M in debt financing and its weighted average cost of capital is 10%. The value of the firm's equity using the single-stage FCFF model is:
A)
$1,177M.
B)
$1,077M.
C)
$1,043M.



The value of the firm's equity is equal to the value of the firm minus the value of the debt. Firm value = $80M × 1.03 / (0.10 − 0.03) = $1,177M, so equity value is $1,177M − $100M = $1,077M.

TOP

An analyst has prepared the following scenarios for Schneider, Inc.:
Scenario 1 Assumptions
  • Tax Rate is 40%.
  • Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) = 12%.
  • Constant growth rate in free cash flow = 3%.
  • Last year, free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) = $30.
  • Target debt ratio = 10%.

Scenario 2 Assumptions
  • Tax Rate is 40%.
  • Expenses before interest and taxes (EBIT), capital expenditures, and depreciation will grow at 15% for the next three years.
  • After three years, the growth in EBIT will be 2%, and capital expenditure and depreciation will offset each other.
  • Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) during high growth stage = 20%.
  • Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) during stable growth stage = 12%.
  • Target debt ratio = 10%.

Scenario 2 FCFF

Year 0

(last year)

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

EBIT$15.00$17.25$19.84$22.81$23.27
Capital Expenditures6.006.907.949.13
Depreciation4.004.605.296.08
Change in Working Capital2.002.102.202.402.40
FCFF5.957.068.2511.56


Given the assumptions contained in Scenario 2, what is the value of the firm?
A)
$70.39.
B)
$81.54.
C)
$96.92.



Use the two-stage FCFF model to value the firm. The Terminal Value of the firm as of Year 3 = 11.56 / (0.12 - 0.02) = 115.60. The value = 5.95 / (1.20) + 7.06 / (1.20)2 + (8.25 + 115.62) / (1.20)3 = 81.54.

TOP

An analyst has prepared the following scenarios for Schneider, Inc.:
Scenario 1 Assumptions:
  • Tax Rate is 40%.
  • Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) = 12%.
  • Constant growth rate in free cash flow (FCF) = 3%.
  • Last year, free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) = $30.
  • Target debt ratio = 10%.

Scenario 2 Assumptions:
  • Tax Rate is 40%.
  • Expenses before interest and taxes (EBIT), capital expenditures, and depreciation will grow at 15% for the next three years.
  • After three years, the growth in EBIT will be 2%, and capital expenditure and depreciation will offset each other.
  • WACC during high growth stage = 20%.
  • WACC during stable growth stage = 12%.
  • Target debt ratio = 10%.
Scenario 2 FCFF
Year 0
(last year)

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4
EBIT$15.00$17.25$19.84$22.81$23.27
Capital Expenditures6.006.907.949.13
Depreciation4.004.605.296.08
Change in Working Capital2.002.102.202.402.40
FCFF5.957.068.2511.56
Given the assumptions contained in Scenario 1, what is the value of the firm?
A)
$333.33.
B)
$250.00.
C)
$343.33.



Under the stable growth FCFF model, the value of the firm = FCFF1 / (WACC − gn) = 30(1.03) / (0.12 − 0.03) = 343.33.


In Scenario 2, what is the year 0 free cash flow to the firm (FCFF)?
A)
$5.00.
B)
$2.00.
C)
$12.00.



FCFF = EBIT(1 − tax rate) + Depreciation − Capital Expenditures − Change in Working Capital = 15.0(1 − 0.4) + 4.0 − 6.0 − 2.0 = 5.00.

TOP

Starshah Industries competes in a high-growth, emerging technology sector that is facing increasing competitive pressures. So far, the firm has been performing well, earning $4.55 per share in 2004. Investment requirements were high, with capital expenditures of $1.75 per share, depreciation expense of $1.05, and a net investment in working capital that year of $1.00 per share. However, despite Starshah’s high growth rate and impressive profitability, Starshah’s Chairman, Lorenzo di Stefano, has become concerned about the impact that a slowdown in expected growth may have on the firm’s valuation.Di Stefano asked Starshah’s Director of Strategic Planning, Keisha Simmons, to make a presentation to Starshah’s board at the end of 2004 about the future growth of the firm. The news was sobering. Simmons told the board members that Starshah could expect two more years of rapid growth, during which time earnings per share could be expected to rise 45% per year with 30% annual increases in capital spending and depreciation. During this high-growth period, Simmons estimates that the required return on equity for Starshah will be 25%. Starshah consistently maintains a target debt ratio of 0.25.
After the near-term spurt of high growth, however, she and her group expect Starshah to move eventually to a stable growth period. During the stable growth period, free cash flow to equity (FCFE) will rise only 5% per year and the annual return to shareholders will decline to 10%.The strategy group expects the transitional period between high-growth and mature growth to last five years. During that time, capital expenditures will rise only 8% per year, with depreciation rising 13% per year. The growth in earnings should drop by eight percentage points per year, hitting 5% in the fifth year. During this transition, the expected return to shareholders will be 15% per year.
Throughout the high-growth and transitional growth periods, Simmons expects Starshah to be able to limit increases in the investment in working capital to 20 cents per year. In her analysis, the investment in working capital will peak in 2010, declining a dime to $2.10 per share in 2011.After Simmons’ presentation, the board debated what to do about the incipient slowdown in Starshah’s growth. A majority of the board argued in favor of moving to offset this slowdown in organic growth through a new emphasis on growth by acquisition.
One potential target is TPX. TPX's current and expected FCFE: $425,000 in 2004, $500,000 in 2005, $600,000 the following year, and $700,000 in 2007. After that, Starshah expects FCFE at TPX to grow 3% per year indefinitely. Starshah would require a return on its equity investment of 20% per year in the high-growth stage and 12% per year in the stable growth stage.Di Stefano and Simmons had a somber meeting the day after the board presentation. But despite the bleak news about future years, di Stefano had convinced himself it was worth staying around through the high-growth and transitional periods. He pointed out to Simmons that, if Simmons’ projections were correct, the value of Starshah’s stock would be in excess of $450 per share by the time the company hit the stable-growth phase. Di Stefano was very pleased with what that implied for the value of his stock options.
Simmons had done the same calculations herself, but she also realized that if required rates of return in 2012 rose from the very modest 10% she used in her board projections to only 15%, that would cut the terminal value of Starshah’s stock in 2011 to only half the level di Stefano was counting on. She considered that valuation too small to make the wait worthwhile. Simmons said nothing to di Stefano, but planned to look for another job. Which of the following FCFE models is best suited to analyzing TPX?
A)
Two-stage FCFE model.
B)
Stable growth FCFE model.
C)
Three-stage FCFE model.



The two-stage FCFE model is most suited to analyzing TPX because we have specific forecasts for the first several years and then a stable growth pattern into the indefinite future. (Study Session 12, LOS 40.i)

The FCFE for Starshah at the end of the transition period in 2011 is closest to:
A)
$20.62.
B)
$23.42.
C)
$21.89.



In order to calculate FCFE for Starshah in 2011, we need to construct a table of the components of cash flow for Starshah.We are given the 2004 values for net income, capital expenditures, depreciation, and change in working capital. We are also given growth rates for each of the three stages of Starshah’s growth: high-growth for two years followed by transitional growth for five years, culminating in stable growth for the following years. Using the original values and their related growth rates, plus the formula for FCFE (see below), we can construct the following table:

20042005200620072008200920102011
EPS4.556.609.5713.1116.9120.4623.1224.27
Capital expenditures1.752.282.963.193.453.734.024.35
Depreciation1.051.371.772.012.272.562.893.27
Change in working capital1.001.201.401.601.802.002.202.10
FCFE3.285.027.6311.0114.6718.0820.6221.89


FCFE = Earnings per share − (Capital Expenditures − Depreciation) × (1 − Debt Ratio) − (Change in working capital × (1 − Debt Ratio)) = 24.27 − (4.35 − 3.27) × (1 − 0.25) − (2.10 × (1 − 0.25))
= 24.27 − 0.81 − 1.57 = 21.89
FCFE = $21.89 per share in 2011.
(Study Session 12, LOS 40.j)


Regarding di Stefano’s and Simmons’ statements about the terminal value of Starshah stock in 2011:
A)
both are correct.
B)
only di Stefano is correct.
C)
only Simmons is correct.



Starshah hits the stable growth phase in 2012. At that point,
Terminal Firm Value2011 = (FCFE in year 2012) / (required rate of return − growth rate)
= $21.89 (1.05) / (0.10 − 0.05) = $22.98 per share / 0.05
= $460 per share. Di Stefano’s statement is correct.
Terminal Firm Value2011 = (FCFE in year 2012) / (required rate of return − growth rate) = $21.89 (1.05) / (0.15 − 0.05)
= $22.98 per share / 0.10 = $230 per share. Simmons’ statement is also correct.
(Study Session 12, LOS 40.j)


Assuming Simmons is right that the required return on Starshah equity rises to 15% in 2012 and beyond, what is the value of Starshah stock at the end of 2004?
A)
$63.71.
B)
$117.49.
C)
$111.35.



In order to calculate the firm value, we need to know the discount rate that applies over each period. Since the discount rate changes, we can simplify the arithmetic by constructing a table of discount factors using 25% for each of the first two years and 15% for each of the following five years:

2005200620072008200920102011
Discount factor1.251.561.802.072.382.733.14


We can then calculate firm value in 2004 using the FCFE values we calculated in question 1 and the stock value in the year 2012 (that we calculated in question 3).
Starshah equity value in 2004 = (5.02 / 1.25) + (7.63 / 1.56) + (11.01 / 1.80) + (14.67 / 2.07) + (18.08 / 2.38) + (20.62 / 2.73) + (21.89 / 3.14) + (230 / 3.14)= 4.02 + 4.89 + 6.12 + 7.09 + 7.60 + 7.55 + 6.97 + 73.25
= 117.49The value of Starshah stock at the end of 2004 is $117.49 per share. (Study Session 12, LOS 40.j)

What is the maximum amount that Starshah would be willing to pay for TPX (in millions)?
A)
$6.941.
B)
$5.102.
C)
$5.874.



Firm Value = [500 / (1.20)1] + [600 / (1.20)2] + [700 / (1.20)3] + [(700)(1.03) / (0.12 − 0.03) / (1.20)3] = $5,874.The most that Starshah could pay for TPX and still meet its required return targets is $5.874 million. (Study Session 12, LOS 43.j)


Which of the following FCFE models is best suited to analyzing Starshah Industries?
A)
Three-stage FCFE model.
B)
Stable growth FCFE model.
C)
Two-stage FCFE model.



The three-stage FCFE model is most suited to analyze firms in high growth industries that will face increasing competitive pressures over time, since those competitive pressures will lead to a gradual decline in the firm’s growth rate (second stage) to a stable level (third stage). (Study Session 12, LOS 40.i)

TOP

返回列表