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10#
发表于 2012-4-3 11:35
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A portfolio manager holds 100,000 shares of IPRD Company (which is trading today for $9 per share) for a client. The client informs the manager that he would like to liquidate the position on the last day of the quarter, which is 2 months from today. To hedge against a possible decline in price during the next two months, the manager enters into a forward contract to sell the IPRD shares in 2 months. The risk-free rate is 2.5%, and no dividends are expected to be received during this time. However, IPRD has a historical dividend yield of 3.5%. The forward price on this contract is closest to:
The historical dividend yield is irrelevant for calculating the no-arbitrage forward price because no dividends are expected to be paid during the life of the forward contract. In the absence of an arbitrage opportunity, the value of should be 0.
Therefore, FP = S0(1 + Rf)T
903,712 = 900,000(1.025)2/12 |
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