Dear Celilia,
I am a little puzzled at the method to caculate the goodwiil.
In your year 2009 training notes, there is a new way to caculate the goodwill. But in the example (Draft SFPs of Piper and Swans on 31 December 20X1,
Chapter 5---- 'non-controlling interest' part), why did it still show the method as below?
(W3) Goodwill
$000
Cost of investment 110
for:
80% NA@ acquisition (88)
(80%X $110(W2))
Goodwill 22
Can I use the method shown on BPP text book as following?
consideration transferred 110
Less: Non-Controlling interest at acquisition 22
Net asssets of Swans at acquisition:
Ordinary share 100
Retained earnings at acquisition 10
Goodwill 22
If the latter one is ok, it will not cause me to feel uncertain that which method I should choose.
In addition, which press of the book do you adopt, BPP?
So much to disturb you. I'm looking forward to receving your reply ASAP.
Thanks a lot! |