答案和详解如下: 4.Given the following income statement and balance sheet for a company: Balance Sheet | Assets | Year 2006 | Year 2007 | Cash | 200 | 450 | Accounts Receivable | 600 | 660 | Inventory | 500 | 550 | Total CA | 1300 | 1660 | Plant, prop. equip | 1000 | 1580 | Total Assets | 2600 | 3240 |
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| Accounts Payable | 500 | 550 | Long term debt | 700 | 1052 | Total liabilities | 1200 | 1602 |
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| Common Stock | 400 | 538 | Retained Earnings | 1000 | 1100 | Total Liabilities & Equity | 2600 | 3240 |
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| Income Statement | Sales | 3000 | Cost of Goods Sold | (1000) | Gross Profit | 2000 | SG&A | 500 | Interest Expense | 151 | EBT | 1349 | Taxes (30%) | 405 | Net Income | 944 | | | | |
Which of the following is closest to the company's return on equity (ROE)? A) 0.292. B) 0.576. C) 1.833. D) 0.752. The correct answer was B) There are several ways to approach this question but the easiest way is to recognize that ROE = NI/equity thus ROE = 944/1638 = 0.567. If using the traditional DuPont, ROE = (NI/Sales)*(Sales/Assets)*(Assets/Equity): ROE = (944/3000)*(3000/3240)*(3240/1638)= 0.576 The 5-part Dupont formula gives the same result: ROE = [(EBIT/Sales)*(Sales/Assets) – (Interest/Assets)]*(Assets/Equity)*(tax retention rate) Where EBIT = EBT + interest = 1349 + 151 = 1500 ROE 2007 = [(1500/3000)*(3000/3240) – (151/3240)]*(3240/1638)*0.7 = 0.576
5.Kellen Harris is a credit analyst with the First National Bank. Harris has been asked to evaluate Longhorn Supply Company’s cash needs. Harris began by calculating Longhorn’s turnover ratios for 2007. After a discussion with Longhorn’s management, Harris decides to adjust the turnover ratios for 2008 as follows:
| 2007 Actual Turnover | Expected Increase / (Decrease) | Accounts receivable | 5.0 | 10% | Fixed asset | 3.0 | 7% | Accounts payable | 6.0 | (20%) | Inventory | 4.0 | (5%) | Equity | 5.5 | — | Total asset | 2.3 | 8% |
Longhorn’s expected cash conversion cycle for 2008, based on the expected changes in turnover and assuming a 365 day year, is closest to: A) 46 days. B) 93 days. C) 86 days. D) 82 days. The correct answer was C) 2008 expected days of sales outstanding is 66 [365 / (5.0 × 1.1)], 2008 days of inventory on hand is 96 [365 / (4.0 × 0.95)], and 2008 days of payables is 76 [365 / (6.0 × 0.8)]. Expected cash conversion cycle is 86 days [66 days of sales outstanding + 96 days of inventory on hand – 76 days of payables]. |