- UID
- 223329
- 帖子
- 304
- 主题
- 136
- 注册时间
- 2011-7-11
- 最后登录
- 2013-9-27
|
7#
发表于 2013-4-5 22:55
| 只看该作者
It all seemed so clear when I first read kurupt1’s post, but either I’ve taken a step backwards or the explanation doesn’t quite work.
It is true that you would prefer the company which is shedding the smaller percentage of its value, as you would one yielding the larger. However, aren’t we confusing price with value here?
If price equals value (i.e. markets are perfectly efficient) then ranking stocks is anyway futile, because lower E/Ps will be more “expensive”, but deservedly so.
If price does not necessarily equal value (which has to be the assumption when we’re ranking stocks in this way), we cannot weigh the earnings against the price/value in this way.
A positive earnings yield is informative, because in the absence of other information and all things being equal, we elect the stock with the higher return.
A negative earnings yield is not informative, because were it to persist, the company would be worthless. In the absence of other information, and all things being equal we should pay less (if at all) per share for any losing company (no matter the size of the loss).
Were we to compare earnings to a more meaningul metric, such as book value, then it would make sense to rank negative yields in this way - we could say the company is worth x, and it’s rate of depletion is therefore y/x - choose the slowest depletion rate in the hope of a timely turnaround.
Unfortunately, because price cannot be assumed meaningfully to equal value in this case, justifying a price by assuming it represents an objective value is circular.
As far as I can see there is no meaningful symmetry between positive and negative E/Ps. The going concern assumption (i.e. persistence of earnings, approximated by the current figure) cannot hold in a negative situation. |
|