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Cash & Carry Arbitrage problem from CFAI
Problem 1b, they show how without access to the lending market, a cash and carry arbitrage strategy ends up loosing money after paying for borrowing costs at the Risk Free Rate. I understand this, but what is confusing me is how they calcualte problem 1c.
The prices for gold they are using at time 0 is different than the prices used at time 0 for problem 1b. It looks like they have discounted the 300/spot price back by the lease rate to arrive at 295.5336. Can someone explain why this is? |
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