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Mock - AM: Q57 (Intrinsic P/E)

Solution:
“Intrinsic P/E = (1 – b) / (r – g)”
The inputs to the solution in this problem are based on most recent period data - not forecast data. As such, it seems the information being utilized is best suited for TRAILING P/E, in which the correct notation would be:
“Intrinsic P/E = (1 – b)(1+g) / (r – g)”
Can anyone provide guidance on the correct angle to approach this problem, and why it is evident here?

if you are using it to forecast valuation - leading P/E would be the right one to use..

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Yes…we are forecasting…I just think of “intrinsic” P/E as the usual payout/r-g. We don’t want trailing P/E, we want leading P/E as cp says

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