In managing the risk of a portfolio denominated in a foreign currency, which of the following is not a reason for using a minimum-variance hedge over a hedge of the principal strategy? A minimum variance hedge: A) | avoids having to perform a regression analysis with its associated statistical error. |
| B) | hedges against uncertainty concerning the return on the foreign assets. |
| C) | hedges against exchange rate risk. |
| D) | uses the covariance of the return on the foreign assets and exchange rate covariance. |
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Answer and Explanation
The purpose of the minimum-variance spread is to hedge the uncertainty of the return of the assets, which will make the final value different from the principal, and the translation risk associated with the exchange rate. The process does rely upon regression analysis and uses the covariance between the foreign assets and exchange rates.
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