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11. Which of the following is most likely a reason that a lessor can offer attractive lease terms and lower cost financing to a lessee? Because the:
A. Lessor retains the tax benefits of ownership.
B. Lessor avoids reporting the liability on its balance sheet.
C. Lessee is better able to resell the asset at the end of the lease.


Ans: A.
The lessor often retains the tax benefits of ownership of the leased asset, which allows the lessor to pass those savings along to the lessee in the form of lower financing costs or other attractive terms.
B is incorrect. Lessor owns the asset.
C is incorrect. The lessee does not own the asset.

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12. On 1 January 2011 the market rate of interest on a company’s bonds is 5% and it issues a bond with the following characteristics:

Face value

€50 million


Coupon rate, paid annually

4%


Time to maturity

10 years (31 December 2020)


Issue price (per €100)

92.28


If the company uses IFRS, its interest expense (in millions) in 2011 is closest to:
A. €1.846.
B. €2.307.
C. €2.386.


Ans: B.
IFRS requires the effective interest method for the amortization of bond discounts/premiums. The bond is issued for 0.9228 × €50 million = €46.140.
Interest expense
= Liability value × Market rate at issuance
= 0.05 × €46.140 = €2.307.

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13. Given the following information about a company:

(€ millions)

2011

2010


Short-term borrowings

2,240

5,400


Current portion of long-term interest bearing debt

2,000

1,200


Long-term interest bearing debt

12,000

9,000


Total shareholders’ equity

23,250

21,175


EBIT

3,850

3,800


Interest payments

855

837


Operating lease payments

800

800


What is the most appropriate conclusion an analyst can make about the solvency of the company? Solvency has:
A. improved because the debt-to-equity ratio decreased.
B. deteriorated because the debt-to-equity ratio increased.
C. improved because the fixed charge coverage ratio increased.


Ans: A.
The debt–equity ratio decreased, thereby improving solvency; the fixed charge ratio remained the same.



2011

2010

Comments

Debt-to-equity ratio
=




=70%




=74%

Ratio decreased: Company has less financial risk; more solvent


Fixed charge coverage ratio =


=2.81


=2.81

No change in FCC ratio

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14. A company, which prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS issues £5,000,000 face value ten year bonds on January 1, 2010 when interest rates are 5.50%. The bonds carry a coupon of 6.50%, with interest paid annually on December 31. The carrying value of the bonds as of December 31, 2011 will be closest to:
A. £4,695,562.
B. £5,301,000.
C. £5,316,000.


Ans: C.
The bond proceeds are determined by taking the present value of the coupon stream and terminal payment at the interest rate of 5.5%:
Proceeds
= 5,000,000 x 6.5% x PVA(10y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(10y, 5.5%)
= 325,000 x PVA(10y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(10y, 5.5%)
= 5,376,881
Where PVA(10y, 5.5%) is the present value interest factor for an annuity of $1 for 10years at 5.5%, and PV(10y, 5.5%) is the present value interest factor for $1 to be received in 10years when rates are 5.5%
Using the effective annual interest (EAI) rate method which is required under IFRS.

Year

Carrying Amount at Start of Year

Interest Expense
@ EAI

Interest Payment @ Coupon Rate

Amortisation of Premium

Carrying Amount @ End of Year

2010

5,376,881

295,728

325,000

29,272

5,347,609

2011

5,347,609

294,119

325,000

30,881

5,316,728

Alternatively, take the PV of the cash flows over the remaining 8 years at 5.5%

5,000,000 x 6.5% x PVA(8y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(8y, 5.5%) = 5,316,728


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15.  Compared to classifying a lease as a financing lease, if a lessee reports the lease as an operating lease it will most likely result in a:
A. lower return on assets.
B. higher debt-to-equity ratio.
C. lower cash from operations.


Ans: C.
The cash from operations is lower if the lease is classified as an operating lease, because the full lease payment is shown as an operating cash outflow. If it were classified as a financing lease, only the portion of the lease payment relating to interest expense reduces the operating cash flow and the portion of the lease payment that reduces the lease liability is classified as a financing cash flow. Therefore, the lessee’s cash from operations tends to be lower under operating leases.


The following two figures summarize the difference between the effects of finance leases and operating leases on the financial statements and ratios of the lessee.
Figure 1: financial statement impact of lease accounting



Finance

Operating

Assets

Higher

Lower

Liability (current and long-term)

Higher

Lower

Net income (in the early years)

Lower

Higher

Net income (later years)

Higher

Lower

Total net income

Same

Same

EBIT (operating income)

Higher

Lower

Cash flow from operations

Higher

Lower

Cash flow from financing

Lower

Higher

Total cash flow

Same

Same

Figure 2: ratio impact of lease accounting



Finance

Operating

Current ratio (CA/CL)

Lower

Higher

Working capital (CA-CL)

Lower

Higher

Asset turnover (Revenue/TA)

Lower

Higher

Return on assets*(NI/TA)

Lower

Higher

Return on equity*(NI/SE)

Lower

Higher

Debt/ Asset

Higher

Lower

Debt/ Equity

Higher

lower

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16. A company issued $2,000,000 of bonds with a 20 year maturity at 96. Seven years later, the company called the bonds at 103 when the unamortized discount was $39,000. The company would most likely report a loss of:
A. $60,000.
B. $99,000.
C. $138,000.


Ans: B.

Redemption cost

$2,060,000

$2,000,000 x 103/100

Carrying amount retired

1,961,000

$2,000,000 – $39,000

Loss on redemption

$99,000

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17. A capital lease requires annual lease payments of $2,000 at the start of each year. Fair value of the leased equipment at inception of the lease is $10,000 and the implicit interest rate is 12 percent. If the present value of the lease payments equals the fair value of the equipment at the inception of the lease, the interest expense (in $) recorded by the lessee in the second year of the lease is closest to:
A. 960.
B. 1,104.
C. 1,200.


Ans: A.

Year

Starting Balance

Interest Expense @12%

Lease Payment

Principal Reduction

Ending Balance

1

10,000

0

2,000

2,000

8,000

2

8,000

960







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18. Which of the following is most likely a benefit of debt covenants for the borrower?
A. Reduction in the cost of borrowing.
B. Limitations on the company’s ability to pay dividends.
C. Restrictions on how the borrowed money may be invested.


Ans: A.
Debt covenants are restrictions imposed by the lender on the borrower to protect the lender’s position. Debt covenants can reduce default risk and thus reduce borrowing costs.


B is incorrect. This is a disadvantage of using debt covenants for the borrower.


C is incorrect. This is a disadvantage of using debt covenants for the borrower.

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19. An analyst makes the appropriate adjustments to the financial statements of retail companies that are lessees using a substantial number of operating leases. Compared to ratios computed from the unadjusted statements, the ones computed from the adjusted statements would most likely be higher for:
A. the debt-equity ratio but not the interest coverage ratio.
B. the interest coverage ratio but not the debt-equity ratio.
C. both the debt-equity ratio and the interest coverage ratio.


Ans: A.
The adjustments to convert operating leases into capital leases would increase the amount of total debt in the debt-equity ratio thus increasing the ratio; the portion of the lease payment estimated to be lease interest expense would lower the interest coverage ratio.

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20.A company issued a $50,000 7-year bond for $47,565. The bonds pay 9 percent per annum and the yield-to-maturity at issue was 10 percent. The company uses the effective interest rate method to amortize any discounts or premiums on bonds. After the first year, the yield to maturity on bonds equivalent in risk and maturity to these bonds is 9 percent. The amount of the bond discount amortization ($) recorded in the second year is closest to:
A. 282.
B. 348.
C. 2,178.


Ans: A.



Interest paid = Market rate at issue x Issued amount of bonds = 9% x $50,000



Interest expense = Market rate at issue x Carrying (BV) of bonds
Amortization of discount = Interest expense - Interest paid

Year

Interest Paid

Interest Expense

Amortization of Discount

Carrying Value



0





47,565



1

4,500

4,757

257

47,822



2

4,500

4,782

282

48,104



Amortization in the 2nd year is 282


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