答案和详解如下: Question 51 The correct answer was A)
The liability method (SFAS 109 of U.S. GAAP) takes a balance sheet approach and adjusts deferred tax assets and liabilities to future tax rates. This question tested from Session 9, Reading 38, LOS b Question 52 The correct answer was C) more volatile return on assets than Canute. Capitalization smoothes the reported income by spreading costs over time. This will also make earnings ratios such as ROA less volatile. A capitalizing company classifies the costs of long-lived assets as CFI outflows, while a company that expenses these costs classifies them as CFO outflows. So Alfred's CFO will be higher and CFI lower. Asset and equity levels will be higher for a firm that capitalizes, so given identical debt levels, the capitalizing firm will show less financial leverage (lower debt/equity and debt/assets ratios) than the expensing firm. This question tested from Session 9, Reading 36, LOS a Question 53 The correct answer was D) Unrealized gains and losses from trading securities. Unrealized gains and losses from trading securities are reflected in the income statement and affect owners’ equity. However, unrealized gains and losses from available-for-sale securities and foreign currency translation gains and losses are specifically included in other comprehensive income. All transactions included in other comprehensive income affect equity but not net income. Dividends paid to shareholders reduce owners’ equity but not net income. This question tested from Session 8, Reading 32, LOS k Question 54 The correct answer was A) $2.04. Lawson’s basic EPS ((net income – preferred dividends) / weighted average common shares outstanding) is ($1,060,000 – (2,000 × $1,000 × 0.08)) / 420,000 = $2.14. To calculate diluted EPS the convertible preferred shares are presumed to have been converted, the preferred dividends paid are added back to the numerator of the EPS equation, and the additional common shares are added to the denominator of the equation. Lawson’s diluted EPS is $1,060,000 / (420,000 + 100,000) = $2.04. This question tested from Session 8, Reading 32, LOS h, (Part 2) Question 55 The correct answer was A) $600,000 higher than what it would have been without the change. Straight line depreciation was originally at a rate of ($18,000,000 - $2,000,000) / 12 = $1,333,333 per year. After 20X3, the carrying value of the milling machine was $18,000,000 – (3 * $1,333,333) = $14,000,000. After the change, straight-line depreciation will be ($14,000,000 - $3,000,000) / (18 – 3) = $733,333 per year. The difference is a $1,333,333 - $733,333 = $600,000 decrease in depreciation expense, which results in an increase in pretax income of $600,000. This question tested from Session 9, Reading 37, LOS b |