Which of the following statements about multifactor models is CORRECT?
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The multifactor model is a time-series regression that explains variation in one asset. APT is a cross-sectional equilibrium pricing model that explains variation across assets. The intercept term in a macroeconomic factor model is the asset's expected return.
Given a three-factor arbitrage pricing theory APT model, what is the expected return on the Freedom Fund?
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The expected return on the Freedom Fund is 6% + (10.0%)(1.0) + (7.0%)(2.0) + (6.0%)(0.0) = 30.0%.
Which of the following best completes the following statement? The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is:
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The APT is less restrictive than the CAPM; it does not require the assumptions that investors have quadratic utility functions, security returns are normally distributed, or the existence of a mean variance efficient market portfolio. The CAPM is a subset of the APT where it is assumed that only the relationship to the market portfolio is useful in explaining returns. The APT is more flexible because it can have k factors. However, these factors are not defined in theory.
Given a three-factor arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model, what is the expected return on the Premium Dividend Yield Fund?
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The expected return on the Premium Dividend Yield Fund is 3% + (8.0%)(2.0) + (12.0%)(1.0) + (5.0%)(1.0) = 36.0%.
Which of the following is NOT an assumption necessary to derive the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
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Derivation of the APT requires three assumptions:
Which of the following assumptions is NOT necessary to derive the APT?
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The APT is an equilibrium model that assumes that investors can create diversified portfolios and that a factor model describes asset returns. It does NOT require that factor portfolios (nor, as in the capital asset pricing model [CAPM], the market portfolio) be efficient. In effect, the APT assumes investors simply like more money to less, while the CAPM assumes they care about expected return and standard deviation and invest in efficient portfolios. The APT makes no reference to mean-variance analysis or assumptions about efficient portfolios. This weaker set of assumptions is an advantage of the APT over the CAPM.
Which of the following is NOT an underlying assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
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The APT makes no assumption about a market portfolio.
Assume you are attempting to estimate the equilibrium expected return for a portfolio using a two-factor arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model. One factor is changes in the 30-year T-bond rate and the other factor is the percentage growth in gross national product (GNP). Assume that you have estimated the risk premium for the interest rate factor to be 0.02, and the risk premium on the GNP factor to be 0.03. The sensitivity of the portfolio to the interest rate factor is –1.2 and the portfolios sensitivity to the GNP factor is 0.80. Given a risk free rate equal to 0.03, what is the expected return for the asset?
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The general form of the two-factor APT model is: E(RPort) = RF = λinterestβinterest + λGNPβGNP, where the λ’s are the factor risk premiums and the β’s are the portfolio’s factor sensitivities. Substituting the appropriate values, we have: RPort = 0.03 + 0.02(?1.2) + 0.03(0.80) = 3.0%
The factor risk premium on factor j in the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) can be interpreted as the:
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We can interpret the APT factor risk premiums similar to the way we interpret the market risk premium in the CAPM. Each factor price is the expected risk premium (extra expected return minus the risk-free rate) investors require for a portfolio with a sensitivity of one (βp,j =1) to that factor and a sensitivity of zero to all the other factors (a factor portfolio).
The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT it:
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The APT assumes that no arbitrage opportunities are available to investors.
The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT it:
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The APT assumes that no arbitrage opportunities are available to investors.
If the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) holds, it determines:
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One way to think about the relationship between the APT and multi-factor models is to recognize that the intercept term in a multi-factor model is the asset’s expected return; the APT is an expected return model that tells us what that intercept should be.
One of the assumptions of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is that there are no arbitrage opportunities available. An arbitrage opportunity is:
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One of the three assumptions of the APT is that there are no arbitrage opportunities available to investors among these well-diversified portfolios. An arbitrage opportunity is an investment that has an expected positive net cash flow but requires no initial investment.
All factor portfolios will have positive risk premiums equal to the factor price for that factor. An arbitrage opportunity does not necessarily require a return equal to the risk-free rate, and the factor exposures for an arbitrage portfolio are all equal to zero.
Which of the following statements regarding the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) as compared to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is least accurate? APT:
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The CAPM is often times thought of as a special case of the APT since CAPM has only one factor, the market portfolio.
Which of the following is an assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
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APT assumes that:
Which of the following is an assumption of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
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APT implies that investors will undertake infinitely large positions (long and short) to exploit any perceived mispricing, causing asset prices to adjust immediately to their equilibrium values.
Which of the following does NOT describe the arbitrage pricing theory (APT)?
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APT is a k-factor model, in which the number of factors, k, is assumed to be a lot smaller than the number of assets; no specific number of factors is assumed. Depending on the data used to fit the model, there may be as few as two or as many as seven factors.
An arbitrage pricing theory (APT) model has the following characteristics:
- (7%)
- (4%)
- (2%)
- (10%)
Assume Silver Linings Fund has the following sensitivities to the factors:
The expected return on the Silver Linings Fund is:
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E(R) = 3.8 + (0.5 × 7) + (1.2 × 4) + (2.1 × 2) + (0.2 × 10) = 18.3.
Michael Paul, a portfolio manager, is screening potential investments and suspects that an arbitrage opportunity may be available. The three portfolios that meet his screening criteria are detailed below:
Portfolio
Expected Return
Beta
A
12%
1.0
B
16%
1.3
C
8%
0.9
Which of the following portfolio combinations produces the highest return while maintaining a beta of 1.0?
Portfolio A |
Portfolio B |
Portfolio C |
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Portfolio Weights Expected Beta A B C 25% 50% 25% 13.00% 1.13 0% 36% 64% 11.52% 1.00 50% 18% 32% 11.44% 1.00 100% 0% 0% 12.00% 1.00 There is no arbitrage opportunity available. Investing 100% in Portfolio A yields the highest return for this risk level (i.e., beta = 1).
Return
Gold Horizon, an investment firm, utilizes a three-factor APT model for its Unique & Rich (U&R) fund. The risk-free rate equals 4%. Using the table below, determine U&R’s expected return.
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GNP |
Inflation Factor |
Investor Confidence |
U&R factor beta |
1.75 |
1.5 |
1.25 |
Factor risk premium |
0.020 |
0.015 |
0.013 |
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E(RU&R) = 0.04 + 1.75(0.02) + 1.5(0.015) + 1.25(0.013)
E(RU&R) = 0.04 + 0.035 + 0.0225 + 0.01625
E(RU&R) = 11.375% ≈ 11.38%
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