The international capital asset pricing model (ICAPM) expresses expected returns as:
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Where: E(R) = asset’s expected return RF = domestic currency risk-free rate bG = sensitivity of the asset i domestic currency returns to changes in the global market portfolio MRPG = world market risk premium [E(RM) – RF] E(RM) = expected return on world market portfolio γ1 to γk = sensitivities of asset’s domestic currency returns to changes in the value of currencies 1 through k FCRP1 to FCRPk = foreign currency risk premiums on currencies 1 through k E(R) = RF + (b × MRP) + (γ1 × FCRP1) + (γ2 × FCRP2) + … + (γk × FCRPk). The ICAPM tells us that the expected return on any asset i is equal to the investor’s domestic risk-free rate, plus a world market risk premium (which is scaled by the asset’s world market beta), plus a foreign currency risk premium for each foreign currency.
[此贴子已经被作者于2010-4-15 15:48:27编辑过]
In a two-currency world, the international capital asset pricing model expresses expected returns as:
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E(R) = RF + (b × MRP) + (γFC × FCRPFC). The relevant risk is world market risk. An additional risk premium is added for the asset’s sensitivity to changes in the foreign currency.
Which of the following assumptions is needed to justify the international capital asset pricing model (ICAPM)? In the ICAPM, the risk-free rate is:
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In the extended CAPM, the risk-free rate (RF) is the investor’s domestic risk-free rate and the market portfolio is the market capitalization weighted portfolio of all risky assets in the world.
Which of the following statements related to the International Capital Asset Pricing Model (ICAPM) is least accurate?
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Expected return for any asset is a function of the investor’s domestic risk-free rate, the world market risk premium, and the sensitivity of the asset to changes in all other foreign currencies. Only if the investor is from the U.S. would he use the U.S. Treasury security.
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