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标题: Reading 37: Long-Lived Assets LOS i习题精选 [打印本页]

作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:37     标题: [2010]Session 9-Reading 37: Long-Lived Assets LOS i习题精选

LOS i: Define impairment of long-lived tangible and intangible assets and explain what effect such impairment has on a company’s financial statements and ratios.

An asset is impaired when:

A)
accumulated depreciation plus salvage value exceeds acquisition costs.
B)
the present value of future cash flows exceeds the carrying amount of the asset.
C)
the firm can no longer fully recover the carrying amount of the asset.



An asset is impaired if its future cash flows (undiscounted) are less than its carrying value.

 

作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:37

An analyst determined the following information concerning Franklin, Inc.’s stamping machine:

The stamping machine is expected to generate $1,500,000 per year for five more years and will then be sold for $1,000,000. The stamping machine is:

A)
impaired because its carrying value exceeds expected future cash flows.
B)
not impaired.
C)
impaired because expected salvage value has declined.



The carrying value of the stamping machine is its cost less accumulated depreciation. Depreciation taken through 7 years was ($22,000,000 - $4,000,000) / 12 × 7 = $10,500,000, so carrying value is $22,000,000 - $10,500,000 = $11,500,000. Because the $11,500,000 carrying value is more than expected future cash flows of (5 × $1,500,000) + $1,000,000 = $8,500,000, the stamping machine is impaired.


作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:37

Lakeside Co. recently determined that one of its processing machines has become obsolete three years early and, unexpectedly, has no salvage value. Which of the following statements is most consistent with this discovery?

A)
Historically, economic depreciation was overstated.
B)
Lakeside Co. will owe back taxes.
C)
Historically, economic depreciation was understated.



Historically, economic depreciation was understated. If an asset becomes obsolete and its useful life is less than expected, accounting methods for depreciation will understate the economic depreciation. In addition, if there is no salvage value when positive salvage value was expected, the understatement problem is compounded.


作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:37

As part of a major restructuring of business units, General Security (an industrial conglomerate operating solely in the U.S. and subject to U.S. GAAP) recognizes significant impairment losses. The Investor Relations group is preparing an informational packet for shareholders, employees, and the media. Which of the following statements is least accurate?

A)
Write-downs taken on asset values can be reversed in later years if market conditions improve.
B)
The write-downs are reported as a component of income from continuing operations.
C)
During the year of the write-downs, retained earnings and deferred taxes will decrease.


Impairments cannot be restored under U.S. GAAP. Both remaining statements are correct.


作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:38

An impairment write-down is least likely to decrease a company's:

A)
assets.
B)
future depreciation expense.
C)
debt-to-equity ratio.



An impairment write-down reduces equity and has no effect on debt. The debt-to- equity ratio would therefore increase.


作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:38

Taking an impairment of long-lived assets will result in:

A)
increased future ROA.
B)
increased deferred tax liabilities.
C)
decreased debt/equity ratio.



In future years, less depreciation expense is recognized on the written-down asset resulting in higher net income and return on assets since ROA = NI/Total Assets. Deferred tax liabilities related to the asset decrease because the impairment cannot be deducted from taxable income until the asset is sold or disposed of. The debt/equity ratio increases because equity decreases while debt is unchanged.


作者: honeycfa    时间: 2010-4-19 15:38

Selected information from Ingot Company’s financial statements for the year ended December 31, 20X4, was as follows prior to the consideration of its impaired asset write-down (in $):

Cash

120,000

Short-term Debt

290,000

Accounts Receivable

200,000

Long-term Debt

740,000

Inventory

300,000

Common Stock

800,000

Property Plant & Eq. (net)

1,700,000

Retained Earnings

490,000

2,320,000

2,320,000

Ingot Company’s excavation machine is permanently impaired. Its purchase price was $1,600,000 and its accumulated depreciation was $800,000 through 20X4. The present value of its future cash flows is $500,000.

The write-down of the excavation machine will cause Ingot’s total debt ratio (total debt-to-total capital) to:

A)
increase from 0.44 to 0.51.
B)
decrease from 0.44 to 0.40.
C)
increase from 0.44 to 0.48.



The write-down of the excavation machine in the amount of ((($1,600,000 ? $800,000) ? $500,000) =) $300,000 decreases retained earnings from $490,000 to $190,000. The total debt to equity ratio increases from (($290,000 + $740,000) / ($290,000 + $740,000 + $800,000 + $490,000) =) 0.44 to (($290,000 + $740,000) / ($290,000 + $740,000 + $800,000 + $190,000) =) 0.51


作者: shxjm    时间: 2010-4-29 09:49

thanks
作者: tracylaubb    时间: 2011-2-15 22:56

thx




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