i'm struggling to get the above mentioned question right. it's the question about a 1 year currency swap w/quarterly payments, when 160 days until maturity are left.
according to the solution in the textbook, the floating side only pays one coupon plus the principal at the first remaining payment date after 70 days. however, the fixed site pays a first coupon after 70 days and eventually the principal plus a last coupon after 160 days.
how come, there is only one coupon payment remaining on the floating side.
