1.Which of the following would have the same value at t = 0 as an at-the-money call option on a forward contract priced at FT (the forward price at time = 0)?
A) A put option, long the underlying asset, and short a risk-free bond that matures at X at option expiration.
B) A put option, long the underlying asset, and short a risk-free bond that pays X-FT at option expiration.
C) A put option on the forward at exercise price (X).
D) Long the forward contract, short the put, and long a risk-free bond that pays X at option expiration.
2.Put-call parity for options on forward contracts at the initiation of the option where the forward price at that time (time=0) is FT, can best be expressed as:
A) c0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0.
B) c0 + X / (1+R)T – FT = p0.
C) p0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = c0.
D) c0 - (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0.
3.At time = 0, for a put option at exercise price (X) on a newly issued forward contact at FT (the forward price at time = 0), a portfolio with equal value could be constructed from being long in:
A) a risk-free pure-discount bond that pays FT – X at option expiration and long in a put at X.
B) the underlying asset, long in a put at X, and short a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X at option expiration.
C) the underlying asset, long a put at X, and short in a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X – FT at option expiration.
D) a call at X and long in a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X – FT at option expiration.
1.Which of the following would have the same value at t = 0 as an at-the-money call option on a forward contract priced at FT (the forward price at time = 0)?
A) A put option, long the underlying asset, and short a risk-free bond that matures at X at option expiration.
B) A put option, long the underlying asset, and short a risk-free bond that pays X-FT at option expiration.
C) A put option on the forward at exercise price (X).
D) Long the forward contract, short the put, and long a risk-free bond that pays X at option expiration.
The correct answer was C)
Put-call parity for options on forward contracts is c0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0. Since X = FT for an at-the-money option, the put and the call have the same value for an at-the-money option.
2.Put-call parity for options on forward contracts at the initiation of the option where the forward price at that time (time=0) is FT, can best be expressed as:
A) c0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0.
B) c0 + X / (1+R)T – FT = p0.
C) p0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = c0.
D) c0 - (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0.
The correct answer was A)
Put call parity for stocks (with discrete time discounting) is c0 + X / (1+R)T – S0 = p0. Noting that for the forward contract on an asset with no underlying cash flows, S0 = FT / (1+R)T , and substituting, we get c0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0.
3.At time = 0, for a put option at exercise price (X) on a newly issued forward contact at FT (the forward price at time = 0), a portfolio with equal value could be constructed from being long in:
A) a risk-free pure-discount bond that pays FT – X at option expiration and long in a put at X.
B) the underlying asset, long in a put at X, and short a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X at option expiration.
C) the underlying asset, long a put at X, and short in a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X – FT at option expiration.
D) a call at X and long in a pure-discount risk-free bond that pays X – FT at option expiration.
The correct answer was D)
Utilizing the basic put/call parity equation, we're looking for a portfolio that is equal to the portfolio mentioned in the stem (a put option). The put-call parity equation is c0 + (X – FT) / (1+R)T = p0. Since (X – FT) / (1+R) is actually just the present value of the bond at expiration, the relationship can be simplified to long call + long bond = put.
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