[size=14.399999618530273px]算Adjusted Beta的时候,公式是forecast beta(1,t) = a0+a1*beta(i,t-1), where a0+a1 is set equal to 1; 又因为the mean reverting value for any time series variable equals the intercept divided by 1 minus the slope, which is a0/(1-a1) here, so the mean reverting value for adjusted beta = 1
[size=14.399999618530273px]不明白为什么 a0+a1 is set equal to 1?如果reverting value for all adjusted beta =1, 那不是所有的risky asset最后的风险都会跟市场趋同了?这make sense吗?
[size=14.399999618530273px]另外,希望有高人能简要解释一下为什么the mean reverting value for any time series variable equals the intercept divided by 1 minus the slope.