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- UID
- 222325
- 帖子
- 366
- 主题
- 5
- 注册时间
- 2011-7-2
- 最后登录
- 2015-1-15
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it is not consistent, isn't it.
follow the 35 logic, the credit risk should be 96+6 = 102, as you risk on losing holding of this IMPLIED amount?
anyone understand this totally and can explain to a client in plain language? |
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发表于 2011-7-13 13:36
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