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Suppose I live in Europe and have dollar investment. I want to hedge the currency risk, so I “sell dollar futures”, because that dollar investment will “give” dollars, which I want to get rid of because I want to have that value in my own currency. Is that the concept?
If that’s correct, then if I will make a purchase in dollar, then I need to “buy dollar futures”.
Can you verify this logic is correct? Thanks.

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