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How do you normalize accounts receivable than have been sold? My brain keeps telling me that its two asset accounts (hence no difference) but I know this is wrong.
Also say you want to consolidate an operating lease and you have lease payments of $100 for the next 5 years with i=10%. Is it just a simple NPV of the amount you capitalize? Then what are the effects on Net income assuming you have straight line depreciation?
Thanks for you help.

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