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50#
发表于 2012-3-28 10:34
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Given the following information:
The U.S. interest rate is 6%.
The spot rate is USD:GBP 2.2000.
The forward rate is USD:GBP 2.0000.
The domestic Great Britain interest rate is 8%.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?A)
| Capital will flow into Great Britain. |
| B)
| If you start by borrowing 1,000 GBP, your arbitrage profits will be 116 GBP. |
| C)
| If you start by borrowing $1,000, your arbitrage profits will be $128. |
|
We know that arbitrage is possible because 2.2 × (1.08/1.06) = 2.2415 > 2.0. This means that the GBP is overvalued in the forward market (it takes too few of them to buy one USD), and should be sold forward. This means that we need to buy GBP today so that we have them to sell forward.Step 1: Borrow $1,000 at 6% (repay $1,060 in one year), convert the $1,000 at the spot rate to 2,200 GBP
Step 2: Lend out the GBP 2,200 at 8% (will receive GBP 2,376 in one year)
Step 3: Sell the GBP forward at the quoted forward rate, 2,376/2.0 = $1,188
Step 4: Repay loan, $1,188 − $1,060 = $128 profit |
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