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Interest only (IO) strip cash flow:
A)
are the same throughout the life of the security.
B)
starts out big and gets smaller over time.
C)
starts out small and gets bigger over time.



IO strip cash flow starts out big and gets smaller over time.

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Principal-only strips are:
A)
could be sold at a discount or a premium, depending on economic conditions.
B)
sold at par.
C)
sold at a considerable discount to par.



Principal-only strips are sold at a considerable discount to par.

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Which of the following best describes a stripped mortgage-backed security (MBS)? A stripped MBS is a security:
A)
that provides no interest payments.
B)
whose distribution of principal and interest has been altered from a pro rata distribution to an unequal distribution.
C)
whose distribution of principal and interest has been altered from an unequal distribution to a pro rata distribution.



With a passthrough security, interest and principal payments generated by the underlying mortgage pool are allocated to the bondholders on a pro rata basis. This means that each passthrough certificate holder receives the same amount of interest and the same amount of principal. Stripped mortgage-backed securities differ in that principal and interest are not allocated on a pro rata basis.

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Which of the following is most accurate regarding the investment characteristics of a principal-only (PO) mortgage strip?
A)
The faster the prepayments the higher the investor's return.
B)
The slower the prepayments the higher the investor's return.
C)
The lower the coupon the higher the investor's return.



For a principal mortgage strip the investor does not receive interest but only the principal. Therefore, the sooner the investor receives the principal the higher the return.

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How is the price of an interest-only mortgage strip affected by declining mortgage rates in the market below the contract rate? The price of the interest-only strip:
A)
decreases.
B)
may increase or decrease.
C)
increases.



When mortgage rates decline, prepayments are expected to increase. This results in a deterioration of the expected cash flows from an interest-only strip.

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Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning nonagency mortgage-backed securities (MBS)?
A)
They usually require credit enhancement.
B)
They are usually backed with “conforming” mortgage loans.
C)
They are issued by private entities.



Nonagency MBS are usually backed by “nonconforming” mortgages, such as those that do not meet the underwriting standards of the agencies.

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All of the following statements regarding nonagency securities are correct EXCEPT:
A)
the collateral behind nonagency collateralized mortgage obligations is passthrough securities.
B)
the collateral behind nonagency CMOs is a pool of loans.
C)
loans used to back nonagency CMOs are referred to as nonconforming loans.



The collateral behind nonagency CMOs is a pool of loans, not passthrough securities.

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Which of the following is a difference between agency and nonagency mortgage-backed securities (MBS)? Nonagency MBS:
A)
have floating mortgage rates.
B)
can only be for commercial real estate property.
C)
can be for any type of real estate property.



For agency MBS the underlying mortgages are one to four-single family residential mortgages only. Nonagency securities exist that are backed by second mortgage loans, manufactured housing loans, and a variety of commercial real estate loans, in addition to single family residential mortgages.

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When assessing credit risk for a Commercial Mortgage-Backed Security (CMBS), the underwriter will complete which of the following financial analysis?
A)
Both of the answer choices are correct.
B)
Compute a weighted debt service coverage ratio (DSC ratio) for the overall portfolio.
C)
Compute the DSC ratio for each property in the CMBS.



Financial analysis of the DSC ratio for each property in the CMBS and analysis of the DSC ratio for the overall portfolio are both completed by the underwriter when assessing credit risk for a CMBS.

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Which of the following is the primary difference between residential Mortgage-Backed Securities (MBS) and Commercial Mortgage-Backed Securities (CMBS) credit risk?
A)
Residential credit risk is difficult to quantify because of the nature of the residential borrower.
B)
In residential MBS securities, the lender has the ability to seek repayment from the borrower beyond the value of the collateral.
C)
Residential credit risk does not use financial ratio analysis for the determination of borrower credit worthiness.



All CMBS mortgages are non-recourse loans; however, the residential mortgage lender can go back to the borrower personally in an attempt to repay a delinquent mortgage loan.

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