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Re: grinold kroner model

can anyone explain to me the components of the Grinold kroner formula...

E= D/P - %chng in S + i + g +%chng in PE

y do we take % chng in S ?

how would u derive g?

wat is meant by % change in PE?

I was very civil. First to answer your question and your follow-up.
But if it's too much for you, then I'll just let california pizza kitchen answer from now on.

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cpk123 Wrote:
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> positive return between p/e and expected returns.
> p/e increases - for same level of earnings - your
> p would go up. (which is an expectation of higher
> returns).


yeah thanks. i knew that of course. i was kind of confusing with another concept. never mind, got it figured now.

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iteracom Wrote:
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> ^ that's a pretty obvious reason.. im surprised
> someone who passed L2 wouldn't understand it right
> away.
>
> In any case, if the earnings don't change, but the
> market is willing to pay a higher multiple, your
> position becomes more valuable, which increases
> your return.


i understand the difference between high and low PE. i was just not sure how a high PE is an indicator of greater expected returns. On the contrary, according to value buying, one of the most important criteria of stock selection is buying the stocks with low PE ratio. i think i was reading too much into the text.

on another note, u can try to be more civil when u answer someone's query .

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positive return between p/e and expected returns. p/e increases - for same level of earnings - your p would go up. (which is an expectation of higher returns).

CP

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^ that's a pretty obvious reason.. im surprised someone who passed L2 wouldn't understand it right away.

In any case, if the earnings don't change, but the market is willing to pay a higher multiple, your position becomes more valuable, which increases your return.

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iteracom Wrote:
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> All of this is in the curriculum. why don't you
> look it up?
>
> %change S is the change in shares outstanding
>
> g can be derived either Nom GDP or Real GDP +
> Inflation
>
> change in PE is the price multiple



i did look it up. what i mean to ask is why change in PE has a positive relationship with E(r) ?
can u help explain that?

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wrong way...guys...

our hero has a problem here!



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at Wednesday, December 15, 2010 at 09:10PM by coshair.

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ohai Wrote:
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> There's something I never figured out - how does Superman have sex? Wouldn't he destroy any human with the power of his involuntary er... spasms?

He's an alien, for Christ sake. His Kyrptonian biological makeup is enhanced by earth's yellow sun. If Lois gets a tan the kid could kick right through her stomach. Only someone like Wonder Woman has a strong enough uterus to carry his kid. The only way he could bang regular chicks is with a kryptonite condom. That would kill him.

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Know this formula by heart - it comes on the exam every year. It was on last year anyways.

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