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Assume the philippine peso is at a 1-year forward discount of 1.25% to the Thai baht and that Thailand's 1-year interest rate is at 3%. If a Thai investor has no arbitrage opportunities, the Philippine interest rate is ?

答案给的4.25%=3%+1.25%,我就不明白为什么?

抛补利率平价定理推出来的,仔细看看notes前面的推导吧

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