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capital structure reading,wrong formula?!!!!BE careful

Reading 29,capital structure,page 107
wrong formula:  re= r0+ (r0-rd) (1-t) D/E
right formula:     re= r0 + (r0-rd (1-t)) D/E

BrightStar wrote:
Oh no not again. Aether, are we going to bother?
LOL, exactly my thoughts.
Guys, quit bumping this thread… the formula given in the CFAI text is correct as given. No need for proofs or second-guessing the core material.

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Oh no not again. Aether, are we going to bother?

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for all-equity : wacc=re=r0, Vu=[EBIT(1-t)]/r0
if finance with leverage,  Vl=Vu+tD=D+E=[EBIT(1-t)]/rwacc,  and  rwacc=(D/Vl)rd(1-t)+(E/Vl)re
== Vl*rwacc=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== EBIT(1-t)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== Vu*r0=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== r0*(Vl-t*D)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== r0*(D+E-t*D)=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== ro*(1-t)*D+r0*E=rd*(1-t)*D+re*E
== re=r0+(r0-rd)*(1-t)*(D/E)

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Why’re you bumping this? It is just going to create more confusion for everyone.

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bump

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Please! I remind that: CFA text book is no wrong!
You should read this link for more detail.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modigliani%E2%80%93Miller_theorem

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be careful may friends,2 EOC Q are based on this wrong formula

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Suppose Re = 16%, Rd = 5%, Tax = 20% Debt to Asset ratio = 50%
WACC = 0.5 x 5(1-20%) + 0.5 x 16
WACC = 0.5 x 4 + 0.5 x 16
WACC = 2+8
WACC = 10%
Using the formula (incorrect)
Re = Ro + (Ro - Rd)(1-t) D/E
Re = 10 + (10 - 5)(1-20%) x 0.5/0.5
Re = 10 + 5(1-20%) x 1
Re = 10 + 4
Re = 14% (Which is wrong)
Using the correct formula as CPK mentioned
Re = Ro + (Ro - Rd(1-t)) x D/E
Re = 10 + (10 - 5(1-20%))x 0.5/0.5
Re = 10 + (10 - 4) x 1
Re = 10 + (6)
Re = 16% (Which is correct)

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in the case of an all equity company - D=0, E=1
so D/E = 0
So formula reduces to Re = R0
which is right.
If Schweser has the formula in that way, it is definitely incorrect.
R0 = D/D+E* Rd * (1-T) + E/D+E * Re
work back from there to arrive at Re formula
and you will get
Re = R0 + (Ro-Rd(1-T)) * D/E

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