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- 2011-7-2
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10#
发表于 2011-7-13 15:32
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Paraguay, why did you put the "1" in the last part of your formula? Doesnt that effectively add a 100% gain to the currency effect in addition to the +.08 and +.01 gains? I've seen formulas where it would make the last term in the formula contain -.02(.08 + .01)...when do we need to add the "1" and when do we keep it out? |
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