Can someone explain the logic of the effective spread calculation. Mainly, why do we multiply the difference between the execution price and midquote by 2? and then compare it to the quoted spread?
Which is the correct calculations for effective spread: 2( Execution - Midpoint) or
2( Midpoint - Execution). The CFA text use it both ways see the bottom of pg 13 and calculations on pg 14 in volume 6 (2010 series)