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- 2011-7-2
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10#
发表于 2011-7-13 16:12
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mib20 Wrote:
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> The way they calculate the operating asset and
> pension asset beta is fine and correct, but only
> including the true operating asset beta in the
> CAPM formula, and then calling that your WACC
> seems to be a very poor method of calculating the
> firm's true cost of capital. If anything, the
> total asset beta should be included. Better yet,
> we could lever up the true asset beta to get true
> equity beta, solve for CAPM, and then calculate
> WACC if a cost of debt is given to us.
>
> I cannot wrap my head around the way they
> calculated it.
I was just reviewing this question, and this is what I was thinking too. It doesn't make sense to me why they used the operating beta and not total firm beta |
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