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Ethics Suitability question

If a PM receives written consent from all clients to invest in something outside the original IPS, it's a go right?

There have been a few questions where the answer no even through there's written consent. One question involved getting consent from the pension fund's lawyer, which I guess isn't good enough.

A little help here?

aren't we supposed to follow IPS?

lets say IPS says domestic investment only. then u come across a foreign fund and client sells u it is ok to invest in it.

don't you have to change IPS first before you deviate from mandate?

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yeah consent from anyone other than the client wouldn't be good enough. But get it from the client and you're good to go, I believe.

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Yeah you have to change the IPS

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According to the Changing Investment Objectives section of Schweser Book 1, "Notify investors and potential investors of any potential change in the security selection and portfolio construction processes and secure documentation of authorization for proposed changes."

So I guess it's ok if you get written consent from investors without changing IPS...

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You have to be careful as well with the IPS in regards to a beneficiary. In a bene. requests a change to an IPS regardless of it written or not, you dont change the IPS.

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Can you explain that please cson99? I don't think i follow you. Reference would help too...

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It was an exam question from Stalla's practice exam book, monring session, exam #2.

The beneficiary of a trust had provided the PM written instructions to invest outside the IPS, the correct answer was to ignore their request. As simple as that

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hmmm must be specific to a trust then. Because the material clearly states my quote above...

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Yeah I happen to agree with you and got the question wrong, thats why I want to mention becareful if you are dealing with a benefiary or trust.

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