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8#
发表于 2011-7-11 17:29
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First off, in response to the comment that it could be a typo, rest assured it is not. I've seen this quite often in many SEC filings, so there is an explanation.
The question was not prompted for exam preparation purposes, but rather to explore an area I've come across frequently and would like clarified.
cfaPower, your explanation seems to make sense to me. But just to confirm, assuming your point #1 holds in this case, would that mean that the $2.9M difference between the two statements is buried under COGS in the income statement? i.e., inventory was in stock for a long-period of time and realized depreciation, which was accounted for under COGS when the product sold, but then reclassified to depreciation + amortization when reconciled on the cash flow statement? And if that is the case, should we therefore expect the depreciation + amortization figure in the cash flow statement to always exceed the figure in the income statement (if/when discrepancies arise)? |
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