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Why can't I solve POST/PRE/INV problem a different way?
A private equity firm makes a $10 million investment in a portfolio company and calculates that the firm’s investors should hold 1,000,000 shares at a price of $15.00 per share using the IRR approach. The founders of a portfolio company currently hold 300,000 shares. The appropriate post-money (POST) valuation is:
A) $15 million.
B) $19.5 million.
C) $13 million.
Your answer: A was incorrect. The correct answer was B) $19.5 million.
Since we have no information on exit value or the IRR rate, but the share price and number shares held by each party is given, the post-money valuation (POST) is calculated as:
POST = shares price x total number of shares = $15 |
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